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Drug Inspector Question Paper 2009 -TNPSC

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1. Which of the following trademarked sustained release systems are based on encapsulated drug particles that will dissolve at various rates ?  
I.   Sequels
II.   Spansules
III.  Extentabs.
Of these
A)  I only
B)  III Only
C) I and II
D) I, II, and III

2. Compartmental models are often used to illustrate the various principles of pharmacokinetics. A compartment is best defined as
A)    any anatomic entity that is capable of absorbing drug
B)    a kinetically distinguishable pool of drug
C)    specific body organs in tissues that can be assayed for drug
D)    any body fluid such as blood in urine that may contain drug.

3. Dimethyl sulphoxide is commonly used as an excipient in transdermal patches as
AJ adhesive
B)    permeation enhancer of lipophilic drugs
C)    permeation enhancer of hydrophilic drugs
D)    release liner.

4. Ideal conditions for effective transdermal drug delivery would include molecular
weight of...........and pH of.............for the saturated aqueous solution
of the drug.
A)    < 500 Da,    1  -  5  
 B)    > 500 Da.    1 - 5
C)    < 500 Da,    5  - 9    
D)    > 500 Da,    5-9.

5.  All of the following drugs are believed to undergo significant first-pass hepatic biotransformation, except
A)    phenytoin    B)    lidocaine
C)    morphine    D)    nitroglycerine.

6.    Agglomeration In aerosols can be reduced by including
A)    anionic surfactants with HLB greater than 10
B)    cationic surfactants with HLB less than 10
C)    non-ionic surfactants with HLB greater than 10
D)    non-ionic surfactants with HLB less than 10.

7.    In a suspension, open network aggregate or floccule tends to
A)    settle quickly and cannot be easily redispersed
BJ settle slowly and can be easily redispersed
C)    settle quickly and can be easily redispersed
D)    settle slowly and cannot be easily redispersed.

8.    The particle size range of nano-    -particles is    
A)    1 nm — 1 pm    
B)    1 nm — 1000 nm
C)    Inm — 100 nm    
D)    0-5 pm — 1 nm.

9. Transdermal drug delivery systems contain drugs meant for
A)    local action    
B)    systemic action
C)    both (A) and (B)  
D)    none of these.

10.Which one of the following per oral dosage forms is likely to exhibit the longest lag time ?
A)    Delayed release tablet    
B)    Elixir
C)    Enteric coated tablet  
D)    Sustained release capsule.

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11.    The equation that describes the process of ‘Passive Transport’ is
A)    Noyes-Whitney equation    
B)    Stokes law
C)    Fick’s law    
D)    Hofmeister rule.

12.  The gelatin used in the manufacture of capsules is obtained from collagenous material by
A)    hydrolysis    
B)    decarboxylation
C)    acetylation    
D)    conjugation.

13. Opalux is
A)    colour concentrate for fluidized bed coating
B)    colour concentrate for film coating
C)    complete colour concentrate for enteric coating
D)    colour concentrate for sugar coating.

14.Creams are
A)    emulsions    B)    gels
C) jellies    D)    magmas.

15. Dissolution tests for tablets are done to measure indirectly
A)    hardness    B)    bioavailability
C)    solubility    D)    friability.

16. Trlchloromonofluoromethane is numerically designated as
A)    12    B)    11
C)    114    D)    22.

17. Sealing in sugar coating is done
A)    to release drug in the intestine
B)    to sustain release of the drug
C)    to round the edges of tablet core
D)    to prevent moisture penetration into tablet core.

18. ................. is used to remove the Pyrogen during the preparation of water
for injection.
A)    Membrane filter    B)    Condenser
C)    Still head    D)    Filter head.

19.The type of official eye ointment base is        
A)    hydrocarbon    B)    absorption
C)    water miscible    D)    water soluble.

20. Parenteral product with an osmotic pressure less than that of 0*9% w/v sodium chloride solution is referred to as
A)    isotonic solution    B)    hypertonic solution
C)    hypotonic solution    D)    iso-osmotic solution.

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21. Which of the following is not a super-disintegrant ?
A)    Microcrystalline cellulose    
B)    Sodium starch glycolate
C)    Croscarmelose    
D)    Crosporidone

22. Terminally sterilized products are
A)    those that are sensitive to heat and gamma irradiation
B)    those that can be sterilized after filling and sealing
C)    those products that can be autoclaved
D)    usually suspensions or powders.

23. Slugging is also called as
A)    dry granulation    B)    wet granulation
C)    bulk production    D)    direct compression.

24. Pinocytosls is known as        
A)    vesicular transport    B)    engulfment of small solutes
C)    engulfment of larger particles    D)    absorption phenomena.

25. List  of the substances that are required to be used only under medical supervision and which are labelled accordingly Is / are

A) R
B) G
C) P
D) C and C1

26. Establishment(s) which has/have a qualified person engaged in compounding of
A) Drug store
B) Chemists and druggists
C) Pharmacy
D) none of these.

27. Licence for wholesale of drugs specified in the schedule C and C 1 is issued in Form
A) 20-A
B) 20-B
C) 21-B
D) 22-A

28. The left hand top comer of the label of schedule Xbulk drugs contains symbol,
A)    Rx    B)    RMP
C)    X    D)    XRx

29. In constitution of State Pharmacy Councils total number of Registered Pharmacists to be elected is
A)    five ,    B)    six
C)    seven    D)    four.

30. The Drugs and Cosmetics Rules were passed in the year of
A)    1945    B)  1947
C)    1944    D) 1946.

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31. How many representatives are nominated by the Central Government to Drug Consultative Committee ?
A)    1    B)    2
C)    3    D)    4.

32. The sample taken by the Drug Inspector from the retail premises should be divided into
A)    4 parts    B)    3 parts
C)    2 parts    D)    5 parts.

33.  As per GMP, change rooms to the aseptic areas of sterile product manufacturing area should be clearly demarcated into the following rooms, except
A)    1 Black room    B)    Blue room
C)    Grey room    D)    White room.

34.  As per GMP, during tablet compression, in-process control should be done at regular intervals of
A)    not more than 45 minutes    B)    not more than one hour
C)    not more than 30 minutes    D)    every one hour.

35. Drug ( Price Control) Order came into force in the year
A)    1979    B)    1955
C)    1960    D)    1987.

36. Equipment recommended for the manufacture of powders come under
A) Schedule H
B) Schedule M
C) Schedule N
D) Schedule X

37. Magic remedies include
A) Talismans
 B) Mantras
C) Kavachas
D) all of these.

38. Spurious drugs mean
A) imitations
B) substitutes
C)  resembling other drugs  
 D)  all of these.

39. GMP for Ayurvedic, Slddha and Unani medicines are covered by
A)    Schedule U    B)    Schedule T C)    Schedule W   D)    Schedule M

40. Protoplasmic plant tissue culture method was introduced in 1960 by
A)  Cocking  B)  Skoog & Miller
C) Gamborg and Neabors  D)    Carlson.

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41.  The sugar concentration of molasses used in the production of industrial alcohol should be
 A) 10% to 18%    B)    4% to 8%
C) 15% to 25%    D)    20% to 30%.

42.    The fibrin clot produced when thrombin is mixed with
A) fibrinogen    B)    fibrin foam
C) dried human serum    D)    citrate-saline.

43.    Exotoxin producing bacteria are        
 A) Salmonella typhi    B)    Vibrio cholerae
C) Clostridium tetant    D)    Pasteurella pestis.

44. Following are the carbon sources used in the fermentative production of Jv-glutamic acid, except
A) ri-paraffin  
B)    acetic acid
C) ethanol
D)    propylene glycol.

45. Among the proteins present in horse serum, associated with    antitoxins ( diphtheria ) are largely
A) gamma globulins    B)    beta globulins
C) albumins    D)    all of these.

46.  Small bench fermentors are made up of        
 A) stainless steel    B)    borosillcate glass
C) plastic    D)    all of these.

47. Bioreactor is the instrument used for growing
A) bacterial cells    B)    insect cells
C) mammalian cells    D)    both (B) and (C).

48Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another bacterium through bacteriophage is called
A) Transduction    B)    Conjugation
C) Transformation    D)    all of these.

49. Macroglobulin is        
A) Ig M    B)    IgA
C) Ig D    D)    Ig E.

50.    Schick test is performed for testing the individual for the presence of
 A) Polio    B)    Pneumonia
C) Diphtheria    D)    Tuberculosis.

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51. The target site on DNA for Bam HI endonuclease is

52. Quality control of vaccines is carried out by .    
A) in vivo    B)    in vitro
C) in vivo and tn vitro    D)    neither in vivo nor in vitro.

53.Whooping cough vaccine employs killed cell of
A) BordeteUa pertussis    B)    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Vibrio cholerae    D)    Salmonella typhiL

54.Which one of the following is the suitable site of self-injection of interferons
A) Subcutaneous    B)    Abdomen
C) Legs    D)    Finger.

55.A significant number of antibodies    now in use belongs to Immunoglobulin,
A) Ig G    B)    Ig H
C) Ig M    D)    Igl.

56.    High concentration of several proteins is obtained from...........serum.
A)    monkey    B)    horse
C) rabbit    D)    rat.

57.    Which drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myociardial infarction ?
A)    Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor ( GM-CSF)
B)    Alteplase
C)    EPOGEN ( EPO )
D)    Human growth hormone.

58.    Which enzyme is used by the HIV to form DNA in the host cell ?
A)    Restrictive endonuclease    B)    DNA-directed    polymerase
C)    Reverse transcriptase    D)    Both (A) and (B).

59.    Which type of cell does not contain double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid ?
A)    Human cells
B)    Bacteria cells
CJ Human immunodeficiency virus ( HIV ) cells
D)    Fungal cells.

60.    Dextrans are used as blood-plasma volume extenders because
A)    they are heat sterilized    B)    they do not carry virus
C)    both (A) and (B)    D)    none of these.

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61.    The organism used for the production of Dextran is
A)    Leuconostoc mesenterotds    B)    Lactobacillus bulgarium
C)    Clostridium botulinum   D)    Granulobacter botulinum

62. Mechanism of citric acid fermentation is confirmed by
A)   theory of Emde
B)   Krebs’ cycle
C)   theory of Ciusa and Briill    
D)   Bemhauer’s theory.

63.  The first pharmaceutical product to be produced by mammalian cell culture is
A)    tPA    B)    tRNA
C) tDNA   D) tG H .

64.    India is the.......country in the world to develop an indigenous Hepatitis-B vaccine.
A)    2nd    B)    3rd
C)    4th    D)    5th.

65.    Extinction E =

66.    The stationaiy phase in Thin-Layer Chromatography (TLC ) is
A)    adsorbent
B)    liquid held between glass plate and adsorbent
C)    glass plate
D)    none of these.

67.    The wave number is defined as
A)    number of waves per unit of length
B)    number of waves per unit of metre
C)    number of waves per cm
D)    number of waves per unit of width.

68.    The quality assurance personnel responsibilities does not include
A)    maintaining copies of approved study plans
B)    preparation of SOP
C)    inspection of final reports to confirm methods and procedures
D)    issue of product development plan.

69.    The constituents of Karl Fischer reagent are
A)    SO 3 , solution of iodine, anhydrous pyridine, ethanol
B)    SO 2 , solution of iodine, anhydrous pyridine, acetone
C)    SO 3 , solution of iodine, anhydrous pyridine, anhydrous methanol
D)   SO 2 , solution of Iodine, anhydrous pyridine, anhydrous methanol,

70. In electron capture detector.............may be used as a carrier gas for
compounds of high electron affinity.
A)    Nitrogen    B)   Argon
C) Hydrogen    D)   Carbon dioxide
.

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71. Which of the following statements about ISO is incorrect ?
A)    ISO certifies organisations which apply for ISO 9001 compliance.
B)    ISO 9000 is not a prescriptive standard for quality.
C)    ISO 9000 is a process oriented rather than result oriented standard.
D)    ISO 9000 does not provide industry specific performance requirements.

72. The composition of the Barium sulphate reagent used in the limit test for sulphates is
A)    Barium sulphate, Sulphate free alcohol and Ferrous sulphate
B)    Barium chloride, alcohol and Potassium chloride
C)    Barium sulphate, alcohol and Potassium chloride
D)    Barium chloride, Sulphate free alcohol and Potassium sulphate.

73.  Katharometers & Bolometers are different types of
A) pumps    B)  detectors
C) monochromators  D) recorders.

74.In IR spectroscopy which region provides information for molecular structure elucidation ?
A)    Near IR    B)    Far IR
C)    Middle IR    D)    Very near IR.

75. In HPLC which detector is based upon bulk property of elute ?
A)    Refractive index detectors    B)    Diode array detectors
C)    Fluorescence detectors    D)    PMT

76.    Example for Emission Spectroscopy is        
A)    Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy    B)    Flame Photometry
C)    Fluorimetry    D)    all of these.

77.    In NMR spectroscopy, the chemical shift is    expressed in
A)    gauss    BJ    parts per million
C)    tesla    D)    hertz.

78. In mass spectroscopy for chemical ionization which reactant gas is most widely
used ?        
A)    Argon    B)    Neon
C)    Methane    , ' D)    Oxygen.

79. In the determination of selenium by Fluorimetry, the sensitivity can be increased by using the reagent,
A)    2, 3-diaminonaphthalene
B)    3. 3-diaminobenzidine
C)    Cyanogen chloride
D)    75% v/v sulphuric acid in ethanol.

80.In IR spectra, the absorption at 3300 cm” 1 arid at 1020 cm” 1 indicates the presence of
A)    NH group    B)    Amide - C = O
C)    Aliphatic C - H    D)    Hydroxyl group

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81.    As per the GLP, full calibration of spectrophotometers should be done
A)    once a day    B) once a month
C)    every quarter    D) half-yearly.

82.    The closeness of the results obtained by the procedure to the true value is
A)    linearity    B)    precision
C)    accuracy    D)    sensitivity.

83.    Which of the following contains a chromophore ?
A)    Ethylene    B) Ethane
C)    Both (A) and (B)    D) None of these.

84.    The presence of which of the following groups increases fluorescence intensity ?
 A) Amino group    B) Nitro group
C) Both (A) and (B)    D) None of these.

85.    The purple colour formed in the limit test for iron is due to
A)    Ferric thioglycolate    B)    Ferrous thioglycolate
C)    Ferrous glycolate    D)    Ferric glycolate.

86. Rf value ranges from        
A)    0 to 1    B)    0 to 2
C)    2 to - 2    D)    + 1 to - 1.

87. In the limit test for arsenic the granulated zinc and HC1 help to
A)    increase the sensitivity of the test
B)    produce stable colour
C)    provide an acid medium
D)    reduce the arsenic or arsenious acid to arsine.

88.  In the limit test for sulphates, the alcohol in the Barium sulphate reagent helps to.
A)    increase the solubility    B) prevent ppt of impurities
C)    clarify the solution    D) prevent super-saturation.

89. The volume of carrier gas required to elute one half of the compound from the column is expressed as
A)    Retention tim? u    B) Revalue    
C)    R x value    D) Retention volume.

90. In IR spectrum, the functional group region is    
A)    4000 cm -1 to 900 cm -1    B) 4000 cm- 1 to 1400 cm - 1
C)    1400 cm-1 to 900 cm -1    D) 4000 cm -1 to 660 cm- 1 .

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91.A sample is withdrawn or seized from drug store by a drug inspector and sealed. The payment of fair price of the sample
A)    is made to the drug store owner
B)    is not made
C)    is made to the drug store    owner    and in case of refusal a Form is filled up
with a receipt
D)    the drug store owner must be insisted to give it free 6f cost.

92. Drugs Technical Advisory Board ( DTAB )-Allopathy consists of 18 members whereas DTAB -Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani drugs consists of
A)    18 members    B)    20 members
CJ    15 members    DJ    none of these.

93. The list of disease for which advertisement banned or prohibited is finalised in consultation with
A)    Drugs Technical Advisory    Board
B)    Drugs Testing Laboratory
C)    Central Drugs Laboratory
D)    None of these.

94.Which one of the following is not the wing of Drugs and Cosmetics Act ?
A)    Advisory wing    B)    Analytical wing
C)    Administrative wing    D)    Education and Pharmacy, wing.

95. Gudakhu is a tobacco product used for rubbing against human teeth, contains tobacco powder, lime and molasses along with red mineral matter. Within the i provision of D & C Act it is
A)    cosmetic    B)    food
Cl    drug    D)    none of these.

96. Schedule M incorporating GMP ( Good Manufacturing Practices) was introduced in
A)    1987    B)    1988
C)    1989    D)    1990.

97. In the Drugs f Price Control) Order.    1995 the first schedule consists of
A)    list of books    B)    list of bulk drugs
C)    list of formulations    D)    none of these.

98.    The First Schedule of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 comprises
A)    the list of books of references for Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani medicines
B)    list of Pharmacy books
C)    list of Homeopathic books
D)    none of these,

99.    Batch Processing Records ( BPR ) should contain the following details, except
A)    Analytical control number
B)    Raw material manufacturers' detail
C)    Batch number
D)    Date of commencement of operation.

100.    The Head Office of Drugs Technical Advisory Board Is at
A)    New Delhi    B)    Kolkata
C),    Mumbai    D)    Chennai.

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101.    The antiarrhythmic drug quinidine is
A)    ( + ) stereoisomer of quinine
B)    ( - ) stereoisomer of quinine
C)    ( + ) racemic mixture of quinine p) none of these.

102.    The IUPAC nomenclature of Piroxicam is
A)    2H-1, 2-benzothiazine-3-carboxamide, 4 hydroxy 2-methyl-N-pyridinyl-, 1, 1-dioxide
B)    2-naphthalene acetic add, (+) 6 methoxy-a-methyl G) Benzene acetic acid ( ± ) a-methyl-4-{2-methyl propyl J
D)    Benzoic acid, 2-[ (2, 6-dichloro-3- methy phenyl) amino ]

103.    Prazepam differs in structure from Diazepam by
4 A) N-methyl group    B)    N-propyl group
C)    N-cyclo propyl methyl group    D) N-cycio propyl group.

104.    Some psychoactive phenothlezines listed below have the following side chains at position 10, which are given in 1 to 4. Match them correctly :
a)    Chlorpromaztne  1.    3-[4 methyl piperazine 1-yl j propyl
b)    Prochlorperazine 2.    2-( 1 methyl piperide 2-yl) ethyl
c)    Thioridazine         3.    3-14- (2 hydroxy ethyl) piperazine 1-V 1 propyl
d)    Perphenazine     4.    Dimethyl aminopropyl.

105.  From the given pairs of diuretics in which pair both the drugs do not require the presence of aldosterone to produce diuresis ?
A)    Mannitol and Spiranolactone
B)    Spiranolactone and Triamterene
C)    Triamterene and Amiloride
D)    Spiranolactone and Amiloride.

106. The diuretic that is natriuretic, chloruretic, saluretic and antikaliuretic, is
A)    Spiranolactone    B)    Furosemide
C)    Ethacrynic acid    D)    Acetazolamide.

107.  Of the given pairs of antihistamines, the pair in which both are, ‘dual-acting’ antihistamines is        
A)    Cetirizine and Cromolyn sodium        
B)    Azelastine and Cetirizine        
C)    Azelastine and Ketotifen        
D)    Ketotifen and Cromolyn sodium.       

108. Diazoxide and Minoxidil can be described as    
A)    Potassium channel openers    B)    Potassium sparing diuretics
Q    Calcium channel blockers    D)    Sodium channel openers.

109. In the lidocaine series of local anaesthetics increasing the length of the alkylene chain up to three carbon units    the local anaesthetic potency.
A)    increases    B)    abolishes
C)    reduces    D)    does not alter.

110. Which of the following anti-histamines does not cross the blood brain barrier easily ?
A]    Diphenhydramine    B)    Cyclizine hydrochloride
C)    Chlorpheniramine maleate    D)    Cetirizine.

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111. fluorine in Flurazepam is present in
A) 5' position    B)    31 position
C) 2' position    D)    4l position,

112. Ranitidine contains..............ring.
A) Imidazole    B)    Furan
C) Thiazole    D)    Pyridine.


113. Aspirin can be estimated by        
A)    non-aqueous titration    B)    complexometry
C) acid-base titration    D)    dead-stop end point method.

114. Which of the following is anti-cholinergic drug ?
A)    Carbachol    B)    Phenyl ephrine
C)    Eucatroplne    D)    Procainamide.

115. Clonidlne is used in the treatment of the following disorders, except
A)    glaucoma    
B)    hypertension
C)    arrhythmia    
D)    opiate withdrawal syndrome.

116.






 

 

117.    A central carbon atom not directly connected to any H 2 and is connected to a tertiary nitrogen through a 2 carbon unit on the other side with relatively small groups on the nitrogen is the pharmacophore of
A) H j receptor antagonists    B)    Narcotic analgesics
C) Thiazide diuretics    D)    Butyrophenone antipsychotrics.

118.    Homatropine is a semisynthetic obtained or synthesised by reacting
A)    Tropine find Succinic acid    B)    Tropine and Malic acid
C)    Tropine and Fumaric acid    D)    Tropine and Mandelic add.

119.    The 21 -chloro substituted analogue of oxazepam is
A)    Lorazepam    B)    Diazepam
C)    Temazepam    D)    Prazepam.

120.    Analgesic with N-Aryl anthranillic acid nucleus is
A)    Paracetamol    B)    Meclofenamic add
C)    Phenyl butazone    D)    Anti-pyrine.

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121. Cholinergic receptor antagonist existing as enantiomer is
A)    Methacholine
B) Carbachol
C)    Acetyl choline
D) Bethanechol.

122. Tripelenn amine is used as its
A)    Succinate    B)    Maleate
C)    Adipate    D)    Citrate.

123. Which one of the following is not a non-barbiturate ?
A)    Paraldehyde    B)    Carbromal
C)    Nitrazepam    D)    Thiopental    Sodium.

124. Cyclomethycaine sulphate is used in
A)    anaesthetic in chemical bums
B)    skin abrasions
C)    dermatological lesions
D)    all of these.

125. Reserpine is contraindicated in patients with a histoiy of
A)    Epilepsy    B)    Hypertension
C)    Mental depression    D)    Schizophrenia.

126.    Digitalis overdose can be reversed by the administration of
A)    Phenytoin
B)    Calcium
O Fab fragments of Digoxin antibody D) Sodium.

127.    Drugs causing allergic reactions generally act as
A)    Antigen    B) Haptens
C)    Antibodies  D)    Mediators.

128.  A potent tranquilizer which also exhibits strong hypotensive effect Is
A)    Chlordiazepoxide    B)    Meprobamate
C)    Reserpine    D)    Thorazine.

129.    Salicylates are metabolised through
A)    hydroxylation    B)    oxidation
C)    conjugation with glucuronic acid    D)    reduction.

130.    Sodium valproate acts by
A)    blocking the metabolism of GABA
B)    blocking the GABA receptor
C)    blocking the conduction of impulses
D)    blocking the release of GABA.

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131.    Atorvastatin should be taken at night after dinner because
A)    it induces sleep
B)    synthesis of cholesterol is maximum during night
C)    the patient would be affected by sunlight if taken during daytime
D)    of better absorption. 

132.Thiocyanate accumulation and the consequent toxicity is a possibility when excess dose of....... is administered.
A)    Minoxidil    
B)    Hydralazine ’
C)    Sodium nitroprusside   

D)    Clonidine.
 

133. The specific antidote for Paracetamol poisoning is
A)    4-Methyl Pyrrazole    
B)    N-Acetyl cysteine
C)    Folinic acid    
D)    Sodium thiosulphate.

134. Digitalis produces bradycardia by the following mechanisms, except
 A)  reflexly through no dose ganglion
B) direct stimulation of vagal centre
C) sensitization of SA Node to acetylcholine
D) sensitization of SA Node to adrenaline.

135. Pilocarpine can be used in
A) Asthma
B) Coronaiy insufficiency
C) Glaucoma
D) Hyperthyroidism

136. Fluoxetine is a / an
    A)  5-HT partial agonist
    B)   anti-histaminic
   C) inhibitor of 5-HT uptake
   D)  specific 5-HT 3 receptor

137. Tolerance refers to genetically determined sensitivity to a drug called as
A)Linnate tolerance
B) learned tolerance
C) acute tolerance
D) dispositional tolerance.

138. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
A)    a-adrenergic antagonist    — Lisinopril
B)    (5-adrenergic antagonist*    — Propranolol
C)    Arterial vasodilators    — Clonidine
D)    Calcium channel blocker    — Diazoxide.

139.    The movement of drug from a region of high drug concentration to a region of low-drug concentration is referred as
A)    facilitated diffusion    B)    pore transport '
C)    active transport    D)    vesicular transport.

140.The biotransformation reaction involved in metabolism of methyl dopa   is
AJ    Acetylation    B)    Sulphation
C)    N-oxidation    D)    S-oxidation.

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141.    In asthma/COPD patients, which type of antihypertensive drug should be avoided ?
A)    p-adrenergic blockers    B)    Diuretics
C)    Calcium channel blockers    D)    ACE inhibitors.

142.    Drugs having hydroxyl or carboxylic acid group can easily conjugate with
AJ    sulphate    B)    glycine
C)    acetyl coenzyme-A    D)    glucuronic acid.

143.    Colestipol is a/an    drug.
A)    HMG CoA reductase inhibitor    B)    activate PPAR-a receptors
C)    Bile acid binding agent    D)    heavy metal binding agent.

144.    Rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines is
A)    formation of dopamine    B)    formation of dopa
C)    transport of tyrosine    D)    formation of noradrenaline.

145. ACE inhibitors can cause.............teratogenicity
 A)    Phocomelia    B)    Hyperplasia
C)    Phytomelia    D)    Hypoplasia.

146. Antidote for benzodiazepine overdosage is    
A)    Flumazenil    B) Flupenthixol
C)    Fluphenazine    D)  Fluoxentine.

147. Which of the NSAIDS would be of particular use in an arthritic patient who has difficulty in remembering to take his/her medication during the day ?
A)    Diclofenac sodium    B)    Fenoprofen
CJ    Ibuprofen    D)    Oxaprozin.

148. The type of tissue culture used for the production of root-associated metabolites is known as
A)    tissue culture    B)    hairy root culture
C)    two-phase system culture    D)    all of these.

149.The production of secondary metabolites is linked to the
A)    Induction of morphological differentiation    
B)    topographical changes        
C)    environmental changes        
D)    atmospheric changes.       

150. The optimum pH of tissue culture media is    
A)    5-8    B)    6-8
C)    5-6    D)    5 - 7.

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151. Botanical source of cotton is        
A)    PopuliLS nigra    B)    Gossypium harbadense
C)    Linum usitassimum    D)    none of these.

152.    Gurmar comprises the
A)    stem and roots of Gymnema sylvestre
B)    leaves of Gymnema sylvestre
C)    powdered endosperm of the seeds of Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
D)    dried fruits of Amml majus.

153.    From callus, root growth can be enhanced by
A)    Increasing Cytokinin amount than that of Auxin
B)    Increasing Auxin amount than that of Cytokinin
C)    adding no hormone
D)    adding Glbberellins.

154.    The adulterant of purple Foxglove leaves is
A)    Synphytum officinale    B)    Cinchona officinale
C) .    Convallarie majalis    . D)    Urginea marltlma.

155. Narcotine contains which of the following moieties ?
A)    Phenanthrene    B)    Benzyl isoqulnollhe
C) .    Quinoline    D)    Naphthalene.

156. The principal active constituents of which of the following drugs are dimeric glycosides ?
A)    Aloe    B)    Senna
C)    Digitalis    D)    Senna and Aloes,

157.Barbaloin and Sennoside-A can be categorised as..........and........respectively.
A)    C-Glycoside,    O-Glycoside
B)    O-Glycoside,    C-Glycoside
C)    C-Glycoside,    N-Glycoside
D)    O-Glycoside,    N-Glycoside.

158.    Adenine and kinetin are collectively called as.    
A)    Auxins    B)    Gibberellins
C)    Cytokinin    D)    Zeatin

159.    The ideal way to provide iron for a root culture would be to include
    in the medium.        
    A)    Fed 3    B)    Fe 2 ( SO 4 ) 3
    C)    Fe EDTA    D)    FeSO 4 .

160.    Which type of glycoside is present in aloes ?    
A)    O-Glycoside    B)    S-Glycoside
C)    N-Glycoside    D)    C-Glycoside.

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161.    Keller-Kiliani is a colour test specific for the identification of
A)    Sugar Moiety    B),    Glycoside Moiety
C)    Deoxy Sugar Moiety    D)    Both (A) and (B).

162.    Which of the following drugs is a natural insecticide ?
A)    Pyrethrum    B)    Tulsi
C)    Tylopora    D)    Bael

163.    Absorbent cotton dissolves completely with uniform swelling in
A)   60% w/w sulphuric add
B)    90% formic acid
C)    Ammoniacal copper oxide
D)    Ferrous ammonium sulphate.

164.  Development of Novel hybrid plant can be achieved with
A)    organ culture    B)    cell-suspension culture
C)    callus culture    D)    protoplast culture.

165. The botanical name of Aloes from South Africa ( Cape variety ) is
A)    Aloe barbadensis    B)    Aloe ferox
C)    Aloe perryt    D)    Aloe candelabrum.

166.    Cassia senna Is cultivated in
A)    India    B)    Arabia
C)    Somalia    D)    Sudan.

167.    Naphthalene glycoside isolated from senna leaves and pods is
A)    Sennoslde A
B)     Rhein-1 -glucose
C)    . Rhein-8 diglucoside
D)    6-hydroxymusizin glucoside.

168.    Following are the chemical constituents of Brahmi except
A)    Saponlns    B)    Glucosldes
q    Alkaloid Brahmine    D)    Herpes tine.

169. Senna contains        
A)    C-glycosides    B)    O-glycosldes
q    S-glycosides    D)    N-glycosides.

170. Digitalis leaves should be dried below        
A)    50°C    B)    80°C
C)    60°C    D)    100°C.

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171. Centella aslatlca belongs to the family of
A)    Scrophulariaceae  B) Umbelliferae
C)    Rosaceae             D) Araliaceae.

172. Holy basil is the synonym for        
A)    Methi
 B)    Gymnema
C)    Tulsi  

D)    Digitalis.

173. A placement for storage of products is        
A)    private warehouse    B)    public warehouse
C)    bonded warehouse    D)    all of these

174. Which of the following levels of material cautions against stock-out ?
A)    Reordering level    B)    Minimum level
Cl    Maximum level    D)    Average stock level.

175. Selection of site of a drug store depends upon    
A)    availability of finance    B)    existence of hospitals
C)    safety    D)    all of these,

176. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of purchasing ?
A)    Purchase of right quality    B)    Purchase of right quantity
C)    Purchase from right source    D)    All of these.

177.can be considered as primary sources of drug information.
A)   Pharmacopoeias    B)    Journals ( drug based )
C)    Package inserts    D)    Formularies.

178.    Indapamide is taken preferably in the morning because
A)    exposure to sunlight helps conversion to active metabolite
B)    to minimize the effect of increased frequency of urination during night
C)    cholesterol synthesis is least during daytime
D)    cholesterol synthesis is maximum during daytime.

179.    Long term storage of which one of the following vaccines demands storage at - 20° C ?
A)    DPT    . B) DT
C) Oral polio vaccine    D) TT.

180.    In Immunization parlance, WM refers to
A)    Vulnerable Vaccine Method
B)    Vulnerable Vaccine Mode
C)    Vaccine Vial Monitor
D)    Vital Vaccine Method.

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181.  ICH means
A)    International Conference on Harmonisation
B)    International Committee on Harmonisation
C)    International Council on Harmonisation
D)    none of these.

182.    The dose related adverse reaction Is called as
A)    Type A    B)    Type B
C)    Type C    D)    Type D.

183        Is available on internet through the National Library of Medicine
( NLM ) home page at www.nlm.nlh.gov,
A)    BIOSIS    B)    EMBASE
C)    MEDLINE    D)    Science Citation Index.

184.    In ABC analysis C denotes
A)    average usage value items
B)     low usage value Items
C)    costly and valuable Items
D)    fast moving Items.

185.    The drugs that show antagonistic effects in nature whereby the sensitivity of the tissues to one drug is altered by another drug, are
A)    Trimethoprin and Sulphpnamide
B)    Acetylcholine and Noradrenaline
C)    Digitalis glycosides and Diuretics
D)    Warfarin and Phenobarbital.

186.    The term used to describe abnormal drug response is
A) Hypersensitivity    B)    Idiosyncrasy
C) Anaphylaxis    D)    Teratogenicity.

187.    Hospital pharmacy deals with
A)    supply of ancillary products
B)    storage of biological products
C)    purchase of inventory drugs
D)    both (A) and (B).

188.    Drug causing direct liver damage is
A)    Isoniazid    B)    Indomethacln
0)    Phenytoin    D)    Aspirin.

189. Milk and antacids reduce absorption of tetracyclines by forming
A)    chelation    B)    complexes
C)    protein binder    D)    insoluble complexes.

190. Which one of the following statements is matched correctly ?

 

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191. Medication errorsi include
A)    dispensing errors and medication
B)    patient compliance
C)    exact prescription
D)    none of these.

192. Coffee, tea and fruit juices antagonise the efficacy of
antipsychotic drugs.
A)    Thioxantins    B) Butyrophenones
C)    Phenothiazines  D) Sulpiride.

193. The principles of ICH guideline for GCP have their origin in
A)    Declaration of Canada    
B)    Declaration of Helsinki    
C)    Declaration of Austria    
D)    Declaration of Australia.

194.    Phase-1 clinical trials are carried out
I.    to determine the maximum tolerated dose in humans
II.    to determine the pharmacokinetics and pharmadynamics activity
III.    in healthy adult males
IV.    in healthy adult females.

A) I and II
B) II, III and IV
C) III and IV
D) I, II and III.

195. A child who swallows an overdose of fluoride containing multivitamin product should be treated with
A) acetyl cysteine
B) dilute Ca ( OH ) 2 solution
C) docusate sodium
D) atropine sulphate.

196.    Cholestyramine will probably interfere with the GI absorption of
I.    Chlorothiazide
II.    Warfarin
III.    Phenobarbital.
Of these
A)    I only    B)    II and III
C)    I, II and III    D)    no interference.

197.    Drug information sources include all, except
A)    journals    B)    drugdex
C)    dallies    D)    online pharmacy journals.

198.    In inventory control the turnover rate is calculated by which of the following formulae ?
A)    Annual purchase + Annual inventory
B)    Annual purchase x Annual inventory
C)    Annual inventory + Annual purchase
D)    Annual purchase + Annual inventory. 

199.    Aluminium hydroxide gelis combined with Magnesium hydroxide gel in antacid preparations to
A)    ensure synergism
B)    counter the constipating effect of magnesium hydroxide
C)    balance the purgative effect of magnesium hydroxide
D)    improve the absorption of magnesium hydroxide.

200.    Match List I correctly with List II and select your answer using the codes given below ;
    List I                           List II
a)    Salbutamol        1.    Enhance Gl-mobility ,
b)    Tolazoline        2.    Stimulate heart rate
c)    Propranolol        3.    Bronchodilator
d)    Isoprenaline        4.    Suppress ventricular tachycardia,

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