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GPAT 2014 | Question paper with key solutions

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76-125 questions are available below:

76. Mechanism of action of Ketoconazole is:
(a) Inhibits Ergosterol synthesis
(b) Inhibits DNA gyrase
(c) Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
(d) Induces translation misreading

77. All are adrenal gland over activity disorders EXCEPT
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Conn’s syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) Cushing’s disease

78. The oil used in a parenteral product cannot contain.......................
(a) WFI (b) Parffin oil (c) Peanut oil (d) Glycerine

79. Identity the non-absorbable sature
(a) Catgut suture (b) Chromic catgut suture (c) Silk suture (d) Polydioxanone suture

80. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is given by
(a) Raoult’s law (b) Henry’s law (c) Boyle’s law (d) Charles law

81. Identity the functional group present in meprobamate
(a) Amide (b) Ester (c) Carbamic (d) Lactam

82. Match the following

(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

83. Tinea capitis is ringworm infection of
(a) Feet (b) Groin (c) Head (d) Nails

84. Rank the following compounds is order of increasing reactivity in electrophilic aromatic Substitution reactions
(a) Q<P<R (b) R<P<Q (c) Q<R<P (d) P<Q<R

85. Dose dumping may be a general problem in the formulation of:
(a) Soft gelatin capsules (b) Suppositories (c) Modified release drug products (d) None

86. Codeine differ in structure from morphine by:
(a) N-methyl group (b) Acetyl group at C1 and C6 (c) –OC2H5 group (d) –OCH3 group

87. Isotopes differ in:
(a) The number of protons (b) The valency number
(c) The chemical activity (d) The number of neutrons

88. Arrange the given acids in increasing order as per the number of carbons present in them
(P) Capric (Q) Caprylic (R) Caproic (D) Lauric
(a) P<Q<R<S
(b) R<Q<P<S
(c) R<Q<P<S
(d) Q<P<R<S

89. E1cb (Elimination reaction via conjugate base) which reaction intermediate will form?
(a) Carbocation (b) Carbanion (c) Free radical (d) All

90. What are the three basic steps of conventional PCR
(a) Denature, anneal, & Strand displacement (b) Denature, anneal & extension
(c) Strand displacement, synthesis & release (d) Reverse-Transcription, anneal & extend

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91. Rabies bodies are
(a) Negri bodies
(b) Cowdry type B inclusion bodies
(c) Cowdry type A inclusion bodies
(d) Bollinge bodies

92. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
(a) Glucaric acid (b) Glucoronic acid (c) Sorbitols (d) Gluconic acid

93. Increase in melting temperature of DNA is due to high content of
(a) A+T (b) G+C (c) A+G (d) T+G

94. What will be the primary product of the following reaction

95. The mass spectrum of a compound with an approximate MW 137 shows tow equally intense. peaks at
m/z 136 and 138. What does the suggest
(a) The compound is alkyl iodide
(b) The compound is alkyl bromide
(c) The compound is alkyl chloride
(d) The compound is aryl fluoride

96. Capping in tablets mainly due to:
(a) Less upper punch pressure
(b) Poor flowability of granules
(c) Proper formulation design
(d) Entrapment of air in tablet during compression

97. How can we detect the rhizome from the root of the Rauwolfia?
(a) By the presence of small central pith
(b) By the absence of small central pith
(c) By the presence of vascular bundle
(d) None

98. Drug of choice to treat H1N1 influenza is
(a) Adefovir (b) Cidofovir (c) Oseltamivir (d) Tenofovir

99. Identify the correct statement
(P) Condensed tannins are polymers flavans
(Q) Condensed tannins do not contain sugar redidues
(R) Hydrolyzabletannis are polymers of gallic acid or ellagic acids
(S) Gallic acid and catechin are psedotannins

(a) Only Q (b) P and Q (c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S

100. Quick breaking aerosols are applicable:
(a) Orally (b) Parenterally (c) Topically (d) Ophthalmically

101. In the Reimer-Tiemann reaction............ Reacts with phenol to give the ortho-formylated product
(a) Carbene (b) Carbocation (c) Carbanion (d) Free redical

102. Which of the following in not added to chewing tablet
(a) Gildant (b) Disintegrant (c) Lubricant (d) Anitadhesive

103. Range of C=O stretching in enol is
(a) 1800 cm-1 (b) 1710 cm-1 (c) 1685 cm-1 (d) 1655 cm-1

104. Match the following phytochemicals with their source and use
(P) Shatavrin (1) Buckwheat and citrus fruits, strengthens capillary walls
(Q) Resvertatrol (2) Broccoli and cabbage, protects against bladder cancer
(R) Glucosinolates (3) Purple grape, anti inflammatory, anticancer
(S) Rutin (4) Asparagus, galactogogue

(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

105. Which RNA polymerase is the only whose product are capped
(a) RNA polymerase I (b) RNA polymerase II
(c) RNA polymerase III (d) RNA pimase

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106. Match the scientist awarded with Nobel prize with their contributions
(P) Alexander Fleming (1) GPCR
(Q) Kobilka (2) β-blocker
(R) Banting (3) Penicillin
(S) Black (4) Insulin

(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

107. Mean arterial pressure is
(a) Systolic pressure – Diastolic Pressure
(b) (Diastolic pressure + Diastolic Prssure )/2
(c) Diastotic alcohol + (1/3) X pulse pressure
(d) Stroke valume X heart rate

108. Eugenol is
(a) Monoterpene alcohol
(b) Sesquiterpene alcohol
(c) Aliphatic alcohol
(d) Phenylpropene

109. The Vitamin required for carboxylation of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate is
(a) Thiamine (b) Biotin (c) Pyridoxine (d) Niacin

110. Which of the following circled hydrogen is most acidic

111. The drug formulated as suspension follows .............. order reaction
(a) Zero (b) Pseudo Zero (c) First (d) Pseudo first

112. Which diuretic causes decrease in release of insulin
(a) Chlorothiazide (b) Ethacynic zero (c) Triamterene (d) Acetazolamide

113. Match the following drugs with their mode of action
(P) Methotrexate (1) Mitotic inhibitor
(Q) Cyclophosphamide (2) Antimetabolite
(R) Vincristine (3) Alkylating agent
(S) Dactinomycin (4) Intercalating agent

(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (c) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

114. Which compound would be expected to show intense IR absorption at 3300 cm-1
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2C=CH (c) CH3C=CCH3 (d) CH2CHCH2CH3

115. In the carbon NMR, in what region of the spectrum does one typically observe carbons which are part of the aromatic ring
(a) -10-0 ppm (b) 40-60 ppm (c) 80-100 ppm (d) 120-150 ppm

116. Meclofenamate belongs to which class of drug
(a) Slicylates (b) Oxicams (c) Aryl antaranillic acid (d) p-Amino phenols

117. Match the following crude with their chemical constituents
(P) Aloe (1) Hesperidine
(Q) Ginger (2) Palmitin
(R) Lemon peel (3) Barbaloin
(S) Olive oil (4) Allin

(a) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (d) P-3, Q-1, R-1, S-4

118. Dopamine agonists with tetralene function
(a) Ropinorole (b) Pirebidil (c) Pramipixole (d) Rotigotine

119. The IUPAC name of the compound-(CH3
(a) 2-methyl-3-chloropropane
(b) 1-chloro-3-mehtyl butane
(c) 1-chloropentane
(d) 2-mehtyl-4-chlorobutane

120. A powerful inhibitor of stomatal opening is
(a) Auxin  (b) Bytokinin (c) Gibberellin  (d) Abscisic acid

121. What is the renal clearance of a substance, if its concentration in plasma is 10mg, concentration in urine is 100 mg and urine flow is 2 ml/min
(a) 0.02 ml/min
(b) 0.2 ml/min
(c) 2ml/min
(d) 20 ml/min

122. Aim of pharmacovigilance is
(a) To monitor drug toxicity
(b) To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture
(c) To monitor rational use of drugs
(d) To check and control drug costs

123. Phase zero studies is a/an
(P) Exploratory investigational new drug study
(Q) Human microdosingstudies
(R) Step to speed up drug discovery/ development process
(S) Mandatory by FDA

(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S

124. Parenteral product must be:
(a) Packed in bottle (b) Sterilized (c) Free from viable/living organism (d) Pyrogenic

125. Quinine present in highest amount in:
(a) C. calisaya (b) C. officinalis (c) C. ledgeriana (d) C. succirubra

 

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