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GPAT Paper, 2014 | Find out GPAT 2014 question Paper with key answers


Clinical courses


{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}

1. ______________, system does not have orifice to release the drug.
(a) Elementary Osmotic Pump
(b) L-OROS
(c) Sandwich Osmotic Pump Tablet
(d) Controlled Porosity Osmotic Pump Tablet

2. In which rearrangement reaction, Isocyanate is formed?
(a) Curtious (b) Lossen (c) Both A & B (d) None

3. Chitin gets converted in to Chitosan upon:
(a) Acetylation (b) Deacetylation (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction

4. All of the following are leaf constants EXCEPT
(a) Vein-islet number (b) Vein- termination number (c) Stomatal number (d) Leaf fiber

5. Zink chloride is added to mouth wash because it acts as
(a) Fragrance (b) Astringent (c) Cooling agent (d) Antibacterial

6. The choice of route of administration plays an important role in action of directly acting cholinomimetic . Adverse effect of choline esters that may be avoided by selection of an appropriate route of administration is
(a) Bradycardia (b) Hypotension (c) Delirium (d) Sweating

7. Sieve size 80 has opening of
(a) 0.100 mm (b) 0.125 mm (c) 0.150 mm (d) 0.180 mm

8. The ideal saponification value for suppository base is
(a) 50-100 (b) 100-150 (c) 150-200 (c) 200-500

9. o, m, p- isomers can be differentiated on the basis of:
(a) Chemical shift (b) Coupling constant (c) Extinction coefficient (d) Dipole moment

10. Which of the following drug comes under Schedule C1
(a) Opium (b) Ergot (c) Fish liver oil (d) Insulin

11. Source of amla is
(a) Phyllanthus inruri (b) Terminiliachebula (c) Terminalia Bacteria (d) Embilca officinalis

12. What is the unit of dielectric constant
(a) Dyne (b) Debey (c) Farad/meter (d) No Unit

13. Monitoring of plasma drug concentration is required while using:
(a) Antihypertensive drugs (b) Levodopa (c) Lithium carbonate (d) MAO inhibitors

14. Of the following antibiotics, which one would be acceptable to use when treating penicillin resistant S. pnumoinae otitis media
(a) Azithromycin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Cefuroxime (d) Cefaclor

15. Addtion of which of the following to a large volume parntral product is not advised
(a) Active pharmaceutical ingredient (b) Preservatives
(c) Buffering agens (d) Tonicity adjusters


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16. A drug suspension decomposes by zero-order kinetics with a rate constant of 2 mg mL-1 month-1 if the initial concentration is 100 mg mL-1 what is the shelf life
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months (c) 4 months (d) 5 months

17. Sanguinarine belongs to the subgroup of:
(a) Morphinans (b) Benzyl isoquinolines
(c) Phthalide isoquinolines (d) Benzophenanthrenes

18. Antidote for paracetamol overdosing is
(a) Atropine (b) N- Acetly cysteine (c) Glutathione (d) Theophylline

19. Which one of the following drug combination is contraindicated
(a) Glyceryl trinitrate and sildenafil
(b) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
(c) Losartan and hydrochlorothiazide
(d) Pyrimthemaine and sulfadoxine

20. Which sugar is suitable for diabetic patient
(a) Fructose (b) Lactose (c) Mannitol (d) Sucralose

21. Headquarter of Bureau of Indian standards is situated at
(a) New delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai

22. Identity the structure of barbituric acid

barbituric acid

23. Ehtics for pharmacist are put forth by
(a) PCI (b) CDSCO (c) AICTE (d) WHO

24. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound
(a) Bicyclo[2.2.2] octane
(b) Tricyclo[2.2.2] ontane
(c) Bicyclo[2.2.0] ontane
(d) Bicyclo [2.2.1] heptanes

25. Morphine does not cause:
(a) Constriction of pupil
(b) CNS depression
(c) Respiratory depression
(d) Diarrhoea

26. Which of the following is seed gum
(P) Gaur gum (Q) Locust bean gum
(R) Xanthan gum (S) Gellan gum
(a) P and Q  (b) R and S (c) Q and R  (d) P and S

27. The cancer that derived form ectoderm of endoderm of epithelial cells is
(a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma (c) Leukaemia (d) Myloid

28. Which of the following is/are marine anticancer
(a) Trabectadine (b) Eribulin (c) Cytarabine (d) All of the above

29. Identity the compound which is derived form typtophan
(a) Pilocarpine (b) Ephedrine (c) Muscarine (d) Quinoline

30. Opium, cocoa, poppy straw are given in
(a) Schedule H
(b) Schedule X
(c) Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic substances act 1998
(d) Schedule C


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31. Which of the following will be inert in NMR spectrometry
(a) 13C (b) 31P (c) 2H (d) 1H

32. What is the relationship between keto and enol tautomers
(a) Resonance forms
(b) Steriosomers
(c) Constituonal isomers
(d) Different conformations of the same compound

33. Which of the following is following is true for natural killer cells
(a) They may phagocytose tumor cells
(b) Killing of cells is enhanced by interleukin-2
(c) They recognize and kill some virus-infected cells
(d) Killing of cells is stimulated by prostaglandin E2

34. Evaluation of colour is tablets is done by
(a) Reflectance spectrophotometer (b) Tristimulus colorimeter
(c) Microreflectance photometer (d) All of the above

35. The disintegration time of the effervescent tablets is
(a) 2 minutes (b) 2.4 minutes (c) 3.5 minutes (d) 5 minutes

36. Identify the false statements about magmas:
(P) The addition of suspending agents to magmas is always necessary
(Q) Magmas differ from gels in that their suspended particles are larger
(R) Magmas are two- phase systems
(S) Magmas basically are gets
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) Only P (d) Only S

37. All of the following ACE inhibitors are prodrugs EXCEPT
(a) Ramipril (b) Lisinopril (c) Enalapril (d) Perindopril

38. All of the following is resistant to both true and pseudo cholinesterase enzymes
(a) Carbachol  (b) Acetylcholine (c) Methacholine  (d) Pilocarpine

39. Globule size of parenteral emulsion should be
(a) 0.1 to 0.5 μm (b) 0.5-5 μm (c) 5-10 μm (d) Any of the above

40. The objective of audit is to
(a) Improve the product quality
(b) Find out the fault
(c) Improve the product value
(d) Find and process fault and to improve

41. ............ is an alkaloid derived form aliphatic amino acid
(a) Reserpine (b) Nicotinic acid (c) Anabasine (d) Vinblastine

42. The drug sulphan blue is obtained from ...............source
(a) Plant (b) Animal (c) Synthetic (d) Mineral

43. In mammals, The major fat in adipose tissue is:
(a) Triglyceride (b) Cholesterol (c) Sphingophospholipids (d) Phospholipids

44. Dovers powder used as a diaphoretic contains:
(a) Ipecac & Opium (b) Ipecac, Senna & Cinchona (c) Opium, Ipecac & Cinchona (d) All

45. Biological active form of Vit. D in man is:
(a) Cholecalciferol (b) Calcifediol (c) Calciferol (d) Calcitriol


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46. Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic cholinoceptor agonists include which on of the following
(a) Bronchodilation (asthama)
(b) Improved aqueous humor drainage (glaucoma)
(c) Decreased gastrointestinal motility (diarrhea)
(d) Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle (During surgical anesthesia)

47. Regarding the role of surfactants in pharmaceutical suspensions for oral administration which of the following statements is false
(a) Surfactants decrease the water contact angle of dispersed drug particle
(b) Surfactants promote flocculation
(c) Surfactants with high HLB stabilize oral suspensions
(d) Surfactants increase the viscosity of the continuous phase of pharmaceutical suspensions

48. Which of the following drug is NOT used in treatment of H. Pylori infection
(a) Ampicillin (b) Clarithromycin (c) Mosapride (d) Bismuth subgallate

49. The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope is
(a) 1% Sodium hypochlorite (b) 2% Glutaraldehyde (c) 5% phenol (d) 70% ethanol

50. Which rule does provide the most accurate method to calculate the dose for child based on adult dose
(a) Age is months (b) Age in years (c) Weight in pounds (d) Body surface area

51. Chemokine co-receptor 5 (CCR 5 ) inhibitor is
(a) Enfuvirtide (b) Maraviroc (c) Raltegravir (d) Atazanavir

52. The Franz diffusion cell which is used for the evaluation of transdermal drug delivery systems consists of:
(a) 1 chamber (b) 2 chamber (c) 3 chamber (d) None

53. Whick of the following plastic is transparent and flexible
(a) Silicon rubber (b) PVP (c) HDPED (d) PE

54. In which method an order of a fixed number of items is placed every time an inventory level falls to a predetermined point
(a) A-B-C method
(b) Maximum and minimum method
(c) Open-to-buy method
(d) Economic order quantity

55. Choose the option with two reducing sugars
(a) Lactose and maltose
(b) Trehalose and surcrose
(c) Maltose and tredhalose
(d) Economic order quantity

56. The Local anesthetic with highest cardiotoxicity is
(a) Lingocaine
(b) Bupivacaine
(c) Levo- bupivacaine
(d) Procaine

57. Homatropine is
(a) Tropine ester of amino acetic acid
(b) Tropine ester of mendelic acid
(c) Tropine methyl bromide ester of mendelic acid
(d) Tropine ester of amino formic acid

58. Tranexamic acid is
(a) Antithrombotic (b) Antifibrinolytic (c) Fibrinolytic (d) Styptic

59. Which of the antihistaminic compound has antiadrogenic effect
(a) Famotidine (b) Ranitidine (c) Nizatidine (d) Cimetidine

60. Which of the following drug is used prefenntially as preanesthetic mediation
(a) Midazolam (b) Oxazepam (c) Alprazolam (d) Nitrozepam


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61. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when given
(a) Half hour before meals
(b) With meal
(c) After prolonged fasting
(d) Along with H2 blockers

62. Match compounds is Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II
Group I  & Group II
(P) Vancomycin (1) Folate metabolism
(Q) Rifampin (2) DNA synthesis
(R) Puromycin (3) Protein synthesis
(S) Ciprofloxacin (4) RNA synthesis
(5) Cell wall systhesis
(a) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (c) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (d) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

63. Formation of Okazaki occurs in
(a) Transcription
(b) Replication
(c) Translation
(d) Reverse Transcription

64. Drug used in ventricular arrhythmia is
(a) Flecainide (b) Verapamil (c) Esmolol (d) Diltazem

65. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and the lowest TG content is
(a) VLDL (b) HDL (c) LDL (d) Chylomicrons

66. As per schedule ‘Y’ of the drugs and cosmetics act, the animal toxicity study requirements for marketing of a drug depends upon tentative route and duration of administration in humans. In This context , which one of the following statements is incorrect
(a) Single dose human use-animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species
(b) Oral use for 2 weeks in humans- animal toxicity for 4 week in 2 species
(c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans- animal toxicity for 24 weeks in 2 species
(d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration-iregation test in 1 species for 3 weeks

67. For determining the efficacy of sterilization in an autoclave, the spores of the following organism are used as test organisms
(a) Bacillus cereus
(b) Clostridium pefringens
(c) Bacillus stearothemophilus
(d) Clostridium histolyticum

68. Which of the following pairs is mismatched
(a) Aerobic, helical bacteria- gram negative
(b) Entrics- gram negative
(c) Myconbacteria – acid fase
(d) Pseudomonas –gram positive

69. List of drugs whose import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule:
(a) X (b) K (c) H (d) G

70. Sigma minus method is used in assessment of
(a) Bioavailability (b) Absorption (c) Metabolism (d) Tissue distribuation

71. Which of the plant family contains volatile oil in their trichome
(a) Rutaceae (b) Papaveracease (c) Umbelliferare (d) Laminaceae

72. Ferritin is:
(a) Coenzyme (b) The stored form of Iron (c) Non-protein moiety (d) Isoenzyme

73. Which oil is solute is alcohol
(a) Arachis oil (b) Sesame oil (c) Castor oil (d) Corn oil

74. One of the first step of the citric acid cycle is isomerization of citric acid to isoctiric acid this step is necessary because
(a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols is very difficult
(b) Reduction of secondary alcohol is very impossible
(c) Reduction of tertiary alcohols would require a very powerful oxidizing agent
(d) Oxidation of tertiary alcohols would require oxidizing agents

75. Which of the following alkyl halides would undergo SN2 reaction most rapidly
(a) CH3-CH2 BR (b) CH3 CH2-CL (c) CH3CH2 -I (d) CH3CH2 -F



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