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GPAT Paper, 2013 | Find out GPAT 2013 question Paper with key answers

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1. Heckel’s plot represents .....................
(a) Extent of plastic and elastic deformation of material during compaction
(b) Force-time of force-displacement relationship
(c) Pressure-porosity (volume) relationship
(d) Stress relaxation measurements

2. Which of the following would cause increase in the binding strength at the dry granulation process in significant degree
(a) Carboxymethylamylopectiglycolate
(b) Macrogol 4000
(c) Magnesium Stearate
(d) Lactose

3. The correct statements concerning concertation microencapsulation
(1) Concertation always leads to monophasic microcapsule
(2) When the gelatin is used for microcapsule’s wall material, the concertation is bound to happen
(3) Only gelatin can be used for microcapsule’s wall
(4) Simple or compound concertation can be distinguished according to the number of macromolecular colloids taking part in the process
(5) The pH conditions of the system and the solubility of the auxiliary materials do not have any effect on the preparation of the microcapsule
(a) Only 1 and 4 are correct (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 1 and 5 are correct (d) Only 2 and 4 are correct

4. Cyclohexanone exhibits only ................. peaks in 13CNMR spectrum due to symmetry
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

5. If an organic compound does not absorb UV visible radiation it means compound does not contain .....................
(a) Single bond
(b) Sigma bond
(c) Conjugated double bond
(d) Dative bond

6. The positively polarized carbon atom of a carbonyl group acts as............
(a) An electrophile and a lewis base
(b) A nucleophile and a lewis acid
(c) A nucleophile and a lewis base
(d) An electrophile and a lewis acid

7. The Pinene hydrochloride rearranged into bornylterpenoid is called as.............
(a) Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement
(b) A nucleophile and a lewis acid
(c) Fries rearrangements
(d) Backmann rearrangement

8. The mouse model for type I diabetes mellitus is......................
(a) NZB mouse
(b) SCID mouse
(c) Nude mouse
(d) NOD mouse

9. Cholesterol contributors to ...................... Of the biological membrane
(a) Rigidity
(b) Fluidity
(c) Permeability
(d) Osmolality

10. Active site for all serine proteases consists of which triad
(a) Ser-Glu-Asp
(b) Ser-Glu-Met
(c) Ser-His-Asp
(d) Ala-Glu-Met

11. ______________, Anthelmintics having Immunosuppressant activity.
(a) Piperazine  (b) Levamisole (c) Ivermectin (d) Niclosamide

12. Which of the following is selective alpha 2 selective antagonist
(a) Clonidine (b) Prozocin (c) Phentalamine (d) Yohimbine

13. Which one of the following in NOT a protoplast fusion agent
(a) Incacitivated Sendai Virus (b) Ca++ at alkaline pH (c) Polythelen glycol (d) Coltchicine

14. Clinically used Labetolol is ..............
(a) S, S (b) R, R (c) R, S (d) S, R

15. For intramuscular injection, angle of administration is................ Degree
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90



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16. Aromatase is an enzyme complex that is the target for several anticancer drugs. Which of the following anticancer drugs targets aromatase
(a) Cyptoteraone acetate (b) Reloxifene
(c) Aminoglutethimide (d) Testosterone propionate

17. Vinca alkaloids that are used in combination therapy to treat a variety of tumors. How to cancer cells
normally gain resistance to these agents
(a) Mutation of the target structure
(b) Overexpression of the carrier protein called P- glycoprotein
(c) Increased metabolism of the drug
(d) Decreased ability of the drug to enter target cells

18. A set of closely related genes of generic markers that are inherited as a single unit is
(a) Cistron (b) Gene families (c) Haplotype (d) Haploid

19. Ginseng saponins belong to the series of....................
(a) Lupane (d) Brsane (c) Oleanane (d) Dammrane

20. Stokes Einstein equation to the series of................
(a) Enegy changes in Sedimentaition suspension setting
(b) Sedimetation of suspention
(c) Diffusion coefficient
(d) Coefficient of energy consumption

21. The source of radiation for FAR IR spectrometer is................
(a) Golay cell (b) Nernst glower and globar
(c) Mercury lamp (d) Highly heated tungsten filament

22. Which of the following alkaloids derived from lysine
(a) Emtin (b) Cinchonidin (c) Brucin (d) Lobelin

23. The agent that can only be given intravenously for heart failure is...................
(a) Digoxin (b) Amiodarone (c) Quinidine (d) Dobutamine

24. A prescription order for an antibiotic preparation includes the directions ‘ii gtt AU q.i.d” what auxiliary
label should be affixed to the prescription order container
(a) Take with meals (b) For the eye
(c) For rectal use (d) For the ear

25. Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognized by chymotrypsin during peptide bond cleavage
(a) Phe (b) Leu (c) Val (d) Asp

26. Which of the following criteria should be considered when reviewing a medication for addition to the hospital formulary
(a) The amount of samples provided to hospital physicians
(b) Research funds donated to the hospital by the pharmaceutical company
(c) National adverse drug reaction reports
(d) Whether is a gluten-free oral formulation

27. Identify the GABA reuptake inhibitor
(a) Progabide (b) Tigabine (c) Bicuculline (d) Baclofen

28. What in the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier
(a) High lipid solubility of a drug
(b) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
(c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
(d) Meningitis

29. Reynold’s number is given by..................

30. The increase in concentration of second messengers (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) leads to:
(a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
(b) Protein kinases activation and protein phosphorylation
(c) blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
(d) Antagonism with endogenous legands



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31. Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
(a) Lobeline (b) Pilocarpine (c) Carbachol (d) Bethanechol

32. Deoxy position of deoxyribose in DNA is at...................
(a) 1st carbon (b) 2nd carbon (c) 3rd carbon (d) 5th carbon

33. All are potent 3A4 inhibitors EXCEPT.................
(a) Antifungals (-azoles) (b) Protease inhibitors (-avir)
(c) Macrolides (-mycin) (d) Barbiturates

34. ‘Probability of nonsterility’ is given by...............
(a) F value (b) Z value (c) D value (d) None of the above

35. Which of the following is a selective medium for the growth of vibreochelerae
(a) Thayer martin medium
(b) Cefoxitin cycloserine fructose agar
(c) Skirrow’s medium
(d) Thiosulfate citratr bile surcrose agar

36. Specific conductance unit is......................
(a) Ohm cm-1 (b) Mho cm-1 (c) Ohm cm (d) None of the above

37. Karplus curve is associated with which spectroscopy
(a) UV (b) Mass (c) FTIR (d) NMR

38. Which of the following pair of volujmetric method of argentometric titration and indicator used is matched correctly
(1) Fajan’s Method Chromate
(2) Mohr’s method Fluroescein
(3) Vohlard’s method Ferric salt
The method and indicator matches correctly in.................
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 only

39. The reaction of the citric acid cycle that is most similar to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzed
conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is the conversion of
(a) Citrate to isocitrate
(b) Fumarate to malate
(c) Malate to oxaloacetate
(d) alpha-ketogultarate to succinyl-CoA

40. Which one of the following pairs of lipids & related compounds exbibit opposite biological activities
(a) 5-HPETE & leukotriene D4
(b) Cholic acid & Lithocholic acid
(c) Neuraminidase Inhibitors
(d) Acetone & β-hydroxybutyprate

41. HIV may NOT respond to..........
(a) Nucleoside analogues
(b) Protease inhibitors
(c) Neuraminidase inhibitors
(d) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

42. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester of cholesterol used manufacture of cosmetic creams is.............
(a) Oleo oil (b) Lanoline (c) Spermaceti (d) Chaulmoogra oil

43. ................ Is needed for suspensions, lotions, emulsions, creams and ointments to keeps a high container
= consistency and yet pour and spread easily when needed. It also is satisfactory for IM slow release yet easy to inject
(a) Thinxotropy (b) Rheopecty (c) Rheology (d) Newtonian flow

44. The enzyme superoxide dismutase (SOD) converts
(a) O2-to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
(b) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to H2O
(c) H2O to hydroxyl (OH) redicals
(d) O2- toO2

45. For first order reactions the rate constant, k, has the units as.....................
(a) Ms-1 (b) M-1 s-1 (c) M-2 s-1 (d) s-1



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46. Which of the following may be used to assess the relative bioavailability of two chemically equivalent drug product in a crossover study
(a) Dissolution test
(b) Peak concentration
(c) Time-to-peak concentration
(d) Area under the plasma level time curve

47. A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of a monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115 M NaOH solution the titration curve shows equivalence point at 7.05. which of the following indicators would be best for this titration
(a) Methyl red (b) Bromthymol blue (c) Thymol blue (d) Phenopltalein

48. Which of the following in termed as mass filter
(a) Time of flight (b) Farady cup (c) Quadupole (d) Ion trap

49. Which of the following is produced in phenyl propanoid pathway
(a) PHenolics (b) Catotenes (c) Alkaloids (d) Terpenes

50. A diode array detector coupled with UV detection is advantageous because it
(a) Covers a range of wavelengths
(b) Allow lower concentrations of analyte to be detected
(c) Speeds up the detection at a single wavelength
(d) Allows a single wavelength of detection to be moreprecisely chosen

51. The LOD of an analysis is at the femtogram level. This corresponds to detection at the
(a) 1 in 10-18 level (b) 1 in 10-15 level (c) 1 in 10-12 level (d) 1 in 10-9 level

52. Which are those therapeutic systems, which liberate the active ingredient through a special hole, prepared by laser
(a) TTS patches (b) IUD systems (c) OCUSERT systems (d) OROS systems

53. Which of following chromatographic technique is most suitable for small, nonvolatile water-insoluble solutes
(a) GC
(b) Reverse phase LC
(c) Normal phase LC
(d) SEC

54. Which of the following antiviral agent in not a nucleoside analog
(a) Moroxidin
(b) Vidarabine
(c) Cytarabine
(d) Idoxuridine

55. Regarding two compartment pharmocokenitics all are true EXCEPT
(a) A drug is always removed from the peripheral compartment
(b) A drug with a high volume of distribution is likely to be lipophilic
(c) A drug can have a short duration of action while being eliminated very slowly
(d) Most anesthetic drugs are modelled well with a two-compartment model

56. Phenothiazine is obtained by..............with sulfur
(a) Cyclization of dibenzyl
(b) Cyclization of diphenyl amine
(c) Reduction of diphenyl amine
(d) Reduction of dibenzyl amine

57. Vitamin K is constituted of ...................ring
(a) Hdroquinone
(b) Nathphaquinone
(c) Lonone
(d) Denzimidazole

58. To balace intellectual property protection, competition and access to affordable prescription drug, the act made by US government is
(a) Drug Price Competition act (b) Patent term Restroration act
(c) Hatch-Waxman act (d) Orphan Drug Act

59. Gridnard test is used for the detection of......................
(a) Falavonoids (b) S- gyycosides
(c) Cyanogenetic glycosides (d) O-glycosides

60. Which hormone works antagonistically to parathormone......................
(a) Triiodothyronine (b) Insulin (c) Estrogen (d) Calcitronin



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61. Drugs that have been found to be useful in one or more types of heart failure include all of the following

(a) Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors
(b) α adrenoceptor agonitst
(c) β Adrenocepotor agonists and antagonists
(d) ACE inhibitors

62. Which one of the following is used in the Ames test
(a) E. coli
(b) Streptococcus aureus
(c) Pseudomonas aerogenosa
(d) Salmonielia typhimurium

63. Which of the ultrashort acting adrenergic blocker
(a) Carvedilol (b) Atenolol (c) Esmolol (d) Acetutotol

64. Match the following biochemical transformations with coenzymes involved
(i) α –Ketoglutarate to glutamic acid (a) Tetrahydrofalate
(ii) Uridine to thymidine (b) NADH
(iii) Pyruvid acid to acetyl coenzyme A (c) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(d) Pyridoxamine
(a) i-d, ii-a, iii-c
(b) i-a, ii-b, iii-d
(c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
(d) i-d, ii-b, iii-c

65. Drugs that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which of the following property
(a) A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increase.
(b) The elimination half – life increasing as the administered dose increase
(c) The area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve increasing in direct proportion to an increase in the administered dose.
(d) Both low and high doses follow first order elimination kinetics
(e) The steady state drug concentration increases in direct proportion to the dosing rate

66. Appropriate reasons for the deviation form the beer’s law among the following are
(P) Mnonchromaticity of light (Q) Very high concentration of analyte
(R) Association of analyte (S) Dissociation of analyte
(a) P, Q AND R (b) Q, R, and S
(c) P, R and S (d) P, Q and S

67. An alternaive to glycolysis pathway is..............
(a) Glyoxylate pathway (b) Pentose phosphate pathway
(c) Citric acid cycle (d) Gluconeogenesis

68. LeChatelier’s principle states that increasing temperature favors a reaction that...........
(a) Release energy as heat (b) Requires energy as heat
(c) Involves a chemical catalyst (d) Gluconeogenesis

69. In absorption spectrometry, high values of absorbance values (grater than 1 or 2) tend to give poorer precision because
(a) Too much light saturates the detector
(b) Little light reaches the detector
(c) Beer’s law deviations are worse
(d) Monochromators work poorly under intense light

70. When the angle of repose exceeds............... , the powder flow is rarely acceptable for pharmaceutical manufacturing purpose
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 60

71. The chelate, EDTA4: can described as what type of chelating ligand
(a) Bidentate (b) Tetradentate (c) Hexadentate (d) Tridentafe

72. Living cells are negatively charged inside primarily because of..................
(a) ATP, organic acids, and other negative molecules that cannot escape
(b) Removal of sodium ions, which are positively charged, by the Na+/K pump
(c) Extrusion of Ca2+ ion, which is much more concentrated outside a cell than inside
(d) Cell membranes that are more permeable to potassium than sodium

73. Which of the following drugs requires administration on an empty stomach
(a) Naproxen (b) Levothyroxine  (c) Prednisone (d) Nitrofurantoin

74. Which of the following is a non- aqueous binder
(a) Ethyl cellulose (b) Starch (c) Veegum (d) Bentonite

75. Which of the following drugs requires administration on an empty stomach
(a) Cannbichromene
(b) Cannabinol
(c) Cannabidiol
(d) Tetrahydorcannabinol



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