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GPAT 2013 | Question paper with key solutions


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76-125 questions are available below :

76. What is the osmolality of a solution if one mmole of glucose and two mmoles of NaCl are dissolved in 1 kg of the water
(a) 3 mOsm (b) 4 mOsm (c) 5 mOsm (d) 6 mOsm

77. How much can be the working revolution per minute (RPM) of the ball mill
(a) 23-28 “D where D means the diameter of jar
(b) Two times more than the critical revolution per minute
(c) 42.3 “D (D=diameter of the jar)
(d) The average of critical RPM and the optional RPM

78. A compound with an –OH group and –OR group bonded to the same carbon atom is...........
(a) An actal (b) A hemicacetal (c) A simple ether (d) An aldol

79. The reaction of Grignard reagent with aldehydes and ketones gives alcohols. This is known as ..................
(a) NEcleophilic addition reaction
(b) Necleophillic substitution reaction
(c) Electrophllic substitution reaction
(d) Electrophilic addition reaction

80. Osazone is formed by reaction of ............ moles of phenylthdrazine with monosaccharide
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

81. If a sugar contains............ fuction, it is a reducing sugar
(a) Hemiacetal (b) Acetal (c) Aldehyde (d) Ketal

82. Adverse effect of cerivastatin is .................
(a) Higher risk of rhabdomyolysis
(b) Anaphylaxis
(c) Hepatic disorder
(d) Hemolytic anemia

83. Following emigration from blood vesels, leucocyte migration to the site of infection or injury in mediated by
(a) Bradykinin
(b) Chemokines and Complements C5a
(c) Histamine
(d) Prostaglandins

84. In adults, drugs are an important cause of Fanconi’s syndrome. Drugs that cause Fanconi’s Syndrome include which group below. Select One
(a) Antiretroviral agents, aminoglycosides, glucocorticoids
(b) Tenofovir, outdated tetracycline, cisplatin
(c) Cidofovir, galactose supplements, NSAIDs
(d) Cyclosporin, Tenofovir, lamivudine

85. Which of the following is a type of phytoestrogen
(a) F (b) W (c) G (d) Y

86. Which aerosol particles will be deposited in alveoli
(a) >20 μm (b) <0.6 μm (c) 2 and 6 μm (d) 1-2 μm

87. According to lipinskl’s rule of 5 , which of the following properties of drug molecules are likely to cause poor oral absorption
(a) A molecular weight lesser than 500 (b) A log P less than 5
(c) Less than 5 hydrogen bond donors (d) More than 10 hydrogen bond accepters

88. Polarographic method of analysis to obtain indivisual amonuts of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in a given mixture of the
ions (Cu2+ and Cd2+) is achieved by measuring their...........
(a) Half way potentials
(b) Migration currents
(c) Decomposition potentials
(d) Diffusion currents

89. The most widely used agent for the treatment of acute gout arthritis is............
(a) Indemethacin (b) Allopurinol (c) Colchicine (d) Probenecid

90. Which of the following actions of norepinephrine would be antagonized by prazosin but not by propranolol.
(a) Increased heart rate
(b) Mydriasis
(c) Relases of rennin
(d) Glycogenolysis

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91. Arginine serves as a precursor for which of the vasodilatory product
(a) Bradykinin (b) Atrial natriuretic peptide (c) Nitrous oxide (d) L- Citrulline

92. Which of the following is a test of digitoxose
(a) Keller Kiliani’s
(b) Kedde’s reagent
(c) Raymond’s reagent
(d) Baljet’s reagent

93. The Vd for phenytoin is 70 L and half life is 1.5 hours. What is the total clearance of phenytoin
(a) 34.32 L/h (b) 32.34 L/h (c) 151.5 L/h (d) 51.51 L/h

94. Which of the following phytohormone usually acts as bud inhibitor
(a) Gibberlin (b) Ctyokinin (c) Zeatin (d) Indole Acetic acid

95. What is the main different between HPLC and UPLC
(a) HPLC is reverse-phase whereas UPLC in normal-phase
(b) UPLC employs smaller stationary-phase particle size
(c) HPLC and UPLC employ different mobile phase
(d) HPLC and UPLC employ different detection methods
(e) HPLC operates at higher mobile phase pressures

96. Which drug is associated with hepatic/ renal toxic metabolite, N-acetyl-pbenzoquione
(a) Diclofenac (b) Meclofenamate (c) Indomethacin (d) Acetaminophen

97. What is the percentage of chlorpromazine (pKa = 9.3) exiting in ionized form in a solution of chlorpromazine hydrochloride at pH 7.4
(a) 98.76 (b) 1.24 (c) 0.32 (d) 99.68

98. Which of the following is a GLP-1 agonist
(a) Sitagliptin (b) Pramiltide (c) Exenatide (d) Eparlrestat

99. What is mechanism of aprotinin
(a) Inhibits Corboxypeptidase
(b) Inhibits Plasminogen
(c) Inhibits plasmin
(d) Inhibits plasminogen activator

100. Absolute alcohol is prepared from spirit by.................
(a) Distillation
(b) Azeotropic distillation
(c) Fractional distillation
(c) All of the above

101. Which of the following is interleukin agonist
(a) Aldesleukin (b) Rituximab (c) Anakinra (d) Etarecept

102. An extension of the normal pharmacological effects of a drug or its metabolite is termed as ...........
(a) Type A ADR (b) Type B ADR (c) Type C ADR (d) Type D ADR

103. Which of the following parameters is/are important in determining bioequivalence
(a) Tmax
(b) Cmax
(c) AUC and Cmax
(d) None of these

104. What are known as balsams
(a) Resins dissolved in volatile oil
(b) A mixture of volatile oils with sesquiterpenes
(c) Solidified resin devoid of votatile terpenes
(d) Polysaccharide mixed with volatile oil

105. Sesquiterpenes are formed from ............. In the plants
(a) Farnesyl-pyrophosphate
(b) Geranyl farnesyl pyrophosphate
(c) Coloring material
(d) Degraded products of trierpenes

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106. Which of the following is a type of phytoestrogen
(a) Lutein (b) Indoles (c) Isothicotynates (d) Genistein

107. Attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) to proteins/ drugs do all of the following EXCEPT
(a) Protect them form rapid hydrolysis or degradation
(b) Improves micromole solubility
(c) Increases absorption form the gut
(d) Minimizing the uptake by the cells of the reticuloendothelial systems

108. Identify the harmful drug-drug interaction
(a) Imipenem - Cilastatin (b) L-Dopa-Entacapone
(c) Meperidine - Pargyline (d) Methotrexate - leucovorin

109. Synthesis of thyroid hormone in inhibited by all EXCEPT....................
(a) Propyl thiouracil (b) Methimazole (c) Perchlorate (d) Diatrazoate

110. Choose correct statement for PEGylation:
(a) Used to enhance In-vivo half-life of smaller Peptides and proteins
(b) Avoidance of Reticulo-endothelial (RES) clearance
(c) Reduce clearance rate through kidney
(d) All

111. Which of the following is a common herbal remedy for insomnia
(a) Milk thistle (b) Echinacea (c) Eucalyptus (d) Valerian

112. In which category of in vitro in vivo correlation the mean in vitro dissolution time is compared either to the mean residence time of to the mean residence time or to the mean in vivo dissolution time
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

113. What does the Hammett substituent constant (σ) measure
(a) The steric effect of a substituent
(b) The electronic effect of a substituent
(c) The hydrophobic effect of a substituent
(d) The effect on pH of a substituent

114. Property exploited by electroanalytical technique of caoulemetry is........................
(a) Electric potential
(b) Electrical charge
(c) Elcectrical current
(d) Electrical resistance

115. All are true EXCEPT......................
(a) Soft soaps give emulsions with a pH in the basic range
(b) Hard soaps form water-in-oil emulsions
(c) Water-soluble polymers favor the formation of water-in-oil (w/o) emulsions
(d) On the HLB system, lower numbers are assigned to lipophilic compounds while higher numbers are assigned to hydrophilic compounds

116. In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of........................
(a) Auxin and no cytokinin
(b) Higher concentration of auxin and lower concertation of cytokinin
(c) Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
(d) Auxin and cytokiinin in equal proprotions

117. Prostaglandin used in the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage is...............
(a) Carboprost (b) Latanoprost (c) Bimatotprost (d) Travoprost

118. Identity 5HT3 receptor antagonist which is 5HT4 agonist also
(a) Metoclopramide (b) Cispride (c) Cilassetron (d) Graniseton

119. Which of the following AT-II receptor antagonists (SARTANs) does not possess tetrazole moiety in its structure
(a) Losartan (b) Irbesartan
(c) Telmisartan (d) Valsartan

120. What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot
(a) Optimum selectivity factor
(b) Optimum mobile phase flow rate
(c) Optimum column temperature
(d) The capacity factor

121. Brockman activity Scale’ is used in the characterization of ..........
(a) Stationary phase (b) Mobile Phase
(c) Buffer System used (d) Column specification

122. The FDA allows a maximum of ............... salicylic acid in commercial aspirin tablets
(a) 0.05 % (b) 0.1 % (c) 0.15% (d) 0.25 %

123. A phenolic acid compound isolated from the ripe fruits of myrobalan (karitaki).................
(a) Chebulic acid (b) Ferulic acid (c) Emblicanin (d) Pivalic acid

124. Asafoetida _Nitric acid gives...........................
(a) Reddish-brown colour (b) Green colour
(c) Yellowish-orange colour (d) Blue fluorescence

125. Endocrine effects of antipsychotic like chlorpromazine include all of the following EXCERT
(a) Decrease in adrencorticotrophins, Decrease in gonadotrophins
(b) Decrease in release of pituitary growth hormone
(c) Increase in prolactin secretion
(d) Decrease in thyroid hormone production

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