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GPAT 2018 | Question paper with key solutions


Clinical courses

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76-125 questions are available below:

76. In a free-flowing powder, the bulk density and tapped density would be close in value, therefore, the Carr index would be :-
(a) Small (b) Medium (c) Large (d) None

77. Buffer capacity is also referred to as :-
(a) Buffer index (b) Buffer value (c) Buffer efficiency (d) All of these

78. Keesom interactions has a force of :-
(a) 0.5- 1 kcal/mol (b) 1-7 kcal/mol (c) 1-3 kcal/mol (d) None of these

79. Dipole - induced dipoles are also known as :-
(a) London forces (b) Keesom forces (c) Debye forces (d) Hydrogen bonding

80. The interfacial tension of Oleic acid against water at 20oC is:-
(a) 15.6 (b) 52.3 (c) 428 (d) 8.51

81. Suspensions of starch in water exhibit:-
(a) Plastic flow (b) Psudoplastic flow (c) Dilatant flow (d) None of these

82. Very weak bases having pKa < 5:-
(a) Are ionized in the entire pH range of GIT
(b) Absorbed only in stomach
(c) Are unionized at all pH values
(d) None of these

83. During determination of absorption rate constant by method of residual, flip-flop phenomenon occurs when (Ka absorption rate constant and KE overall elimination rate constant).
(a) KE /Ka≥3 (b) Ka/KE≥3 (c) KE /Ka≤3 (d) Ka/KE≤3

84. Which of the following disinfectant effectively destroys vegetative bacterial cells including Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria, bacterial endospores, fungi, and viruses?
(a) 8% formaldehyde + 70% alcohol (b) 70% Alcohol
(c) 0.1% Phenol aqueous (d) 0.1% Iodine aqueous

85. Which of the following are obligatory intracellular parasites?
(P) Virus (Q) Fungus (R) Mycoba cterium (S) Rickettsia
(a) all (b) (P), (Q) and (R) (c) (R) and (S) (d) (P) and (S)

86. Select the correct statement.
(a) Acids salt corresponding to an insoluble salt will be more water soluble than original salt
(b) Hydroxides and oxides of compounds other than alkali metal cations and the common ions
are generally water soluble
(c) Sulphides are water soluble except for their alkali metal salts
(d) Ammonium and Quaternary ammonium salts are water insoluble

87. What is the viscosity of resulting liquid after mixing 300mL of liquid A ( =1.0 cP) with the 200mL of liquid B (ƞ=3.4 cP)?
(a) 2.2 cP (b) 1.4 cP (c) 1.6 cP (d) 1.8 cP

88. A compound now increasingly used as standard practice for enhancing the flow of rubber latex by spraying on to the scraped bark of the rubber tree increasing the latex yields from 36% to 130% is:-
(a) Brassinosteroids (b) Abscisic acid (c) Ethephon (d) Kinetin

89. The constituent of Cochineal is:-
(a) Cantharidin (b) Hirudin (c) Tannic acid (d) Carminic acid

90. The sweet taste and odour of fennel is due to:-
(a) Anethole (b) Fenchone (c) Eugenol (d) Phellandrene

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91. Catechu is used in medicine as an:-
(a) Antidiabetic (b) Anti cancer (c) Antipyretic (d) Astringent

92. Tropane alkaloids are biosynthesized from ________________ amino acid.
(a) Phenylalanine (b) Tyrosine (c) Ornithine (d) Leucine

93. One mg of Lycopodium contains an average of:-
(a) 97000 spores (b) 96000 spores (c) 95000 spores (d) 94000 spores

94. Charaka, a physician belonged to which system of medicine?
(a) Ayurveda (b) Unani (c) Siddha (d) Homeopathy

95. The CCCN code indicating the botanical drugs is:-
(a) 2211 (b) 1122 (c) 1211 (d) 1311

96. Uncaria gambir belongs to the family:-
(a) Rubiaceae (b) Combretaceae (c) Punicaceae (d) Rosaceae

97. Alkanna tinctoria (Boraginaceae) roots are used in:-
(a) Dandruff
(b) Tooth paste
(c) Facial cleansing wash
(d) Lipstick formulations and hair dyes

98. Identify the clotting factor which is known as Stuart factor or thrombokinase.
(a) Clotting factor - IV
(b) Clotting factor - VIII
(c) Clotting factor - X
(d) Clotting factor - XII

99. Which part of the eye is light sensitive (photosensitive)?
(a) Iris (b) Sclera (c) Lens (d) Retina

100. Identify the specific site where maturation of sperm takes place.
(a) Spermatic cord (b) Epididymis (c) Testis (d) Vas deference

101. Identify the hormone that stimulates sperm production in testes and ovulation in females.
(a) Prolactin
(b) Luteinising hormone
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

102. Identify the correct pair from the following:-
(a) Sympathetic stimulation: Bronchoconstriction
(b) Parasympathetic stimulation: Secretion of gastric juice
(c) Sympathetic stimulation: Contraction of pupil
(d) Parasympathetic stimulation: Dilatation of pupil

103. The number of subjects required in a phase 1 clinical trial is:-
(a) 20 to 100
(b) Upto several hundred
(c) 300 to 3,000
(d) Several thousands

104. To obtain a more effective bronchodilation, the drugs that are combined along with
beta-adrenoceptor agonists are:-

(a) Cholinergic antagonists
(b) Cholinergic agonists
(c) Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists
(d) Alpha-adrenoceptor antagonists

105. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs, at low doses, is combined with antidepressants in treatmentresistant depression?
(a) Chlorpromazine (b) Haloperidol (c) Risperidone (d) Fluphenazine

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106. The management of Type-B adverse drug reaction is:-
(a) To reduce the dose (b) To withhold the dose and avoid in future
(c) To increase the dose (d) To reintroduce and withdraw slowly

107. Abatacept, a fusion protein, and a co-stimulation blocker used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis blocks the:-
(a) Activation of T-cells
(b) Inhibition of T-cells
(c) Activation of B-cells
(d) Inhibition of B-cells

108. Hemophilia A is a disease characterized by deficiency of:-
(a) Factor VIII (b) Factor II (c) Factor VII (d) Factor V

109. The enzyme HMG-CoA reductase is involved in the pathogenesis of:-
(a) Atherosclerosis
(b) Renal failure
(c) Alzheimer disease
(d) Parkinson disease

110. Rheumatic heart disease is caused by:-
(a) Streptococcal infection
(b) Excessive lipid consumption
(c) Abnormal lipid metabolism
(d) Atherosclerosis

111. Which of the following is NOT a gene associated with breast cancer?
(a) BRCA1 (b) HER2 (c) BRCA2 (d) CHRM1

112. Which of the following is NOT true about the Ebola Virus Disease (EVD)?
(a) Spreads through human-to-human transmission via direct contact
(b) Antiviral drugs are approved by FDA to mitigate the infection
(c) Diagnostic tests include ELISA
(d) The virus is named after a river

113. Hypodermoclysis refers to which route of drug administration?
(a) Sublingual (b) Intradermal (c) Subcutaneous (d) Intravenous

114. Which of the following is a shortest acting cholinersterase inhibitors enlisted below?
(a) Neostigmine (b) Pyridostigmine (c) Edrophonium (d) Physostigmine

115. Which of the following is a suitable antidote for mercury poisoning?
(a) Atropine (b) Dimercaprol (c) Naloxone (d) Nalorphine

116. Histamine concentration is highest in:-
(a) Beta cells (b) Mast cells (c) Lymphocytes (d) Adipocytes

117. Select the â-lactamase inhibitor.
(a) Griseofulvin (b) Clavulanic acid (c) Sulfamethoxazole (d) Tetracycline

118. The mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin is:-
(a) Inhibition of protein synthesis by interacting with 30s ribosome
(b) Inhibition of protein synthesis by interacting with 50s ribosomes
(c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis by interacting with topoisomerase
(d) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

119. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT for myasthenia gravis?
(a) Down regulation of nicotinic receptors (Nm) leads to myasthenia gravis
(b) Tubocurarine is used to treat myasthenia gravis
(c) It is an autoimmune disorder
(d) Thymectomy is treatment option for myasthenia gravis

120. Which of the following describes the effect of Sodium cromoglycate?
(a) Mast cell degranulation
(b) Mast cell stabilization
(c) Leukotriene antagonism
(d) Glucocorticoid receptor agonism

121. Which of the following side effect of ACE inhibitors result from inhibition of bradykinin breakdown?
(a) Analgesia (b) Hyperglycaemia (c) Productive cough (d) Dry cough

122. Identify antihistamine drug with additional serotonin receptor blocking activity and good appetite stimulant property.
(a) Cyproheptadine (b) Cimetidine (c) Ranitidine (d) Chlorpheniramine

123. Which of the following are the mechanisms of action of digitalis glycosides?
i. Inhibition of Na+-K+ ATPase enzyme.
ii. Reduction in the auriculo-ventricular conduction rate.
iii. Increase in the cardiac output.
iv. Acceleration of auriculo-ventric ular conduction rate.
(a) Only iii (b) i, ii and iii (c) ii, iii and iv (d) Only i

124. The following is NOT true for Furosemide:-
(a) Causes hypokalemia (b) Causes hypouricemia
(c) Causes hypomagnesemia (d) Acts by inhibiting sodium reabsorption

125. Which of the following about the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) is NOT true?
(a) Varicella develops after an individual is exposed to VZV for the first time
(b) Herpes zoster develops from reactivation of the virus later in life
(c) There are no vaccines for this virus
(d) The infection results in post-herpetic neuralgia

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