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GPAT 2016 | Question paper with key solutions


Clinical courses


Clinical research courses

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76-125 questions are available below:

76. The most effective agent for treating psychosis would be
(a) Buspirone (b) Sertaline (c) Dextroamphetamine (d) Olanzapine

77. TGA is regulatory body of which country
(a) Europe (b) Australia (c) Canada (d) UK

78. Which prostaglandins have a keto function at C-9 and a α- Hydroxyl group at C-11 in prostanoic acid backbone
(a) PGA (b) PGI (c) PGE (d) PGF

79. When morphine is heated at 140oC under pressure, with strong HCL, it converts pnto:
(a) Morphinone (b) Apomorphine (c) Codeine (d) Oxymorphine

80. All of the following are gram-negative rods EXCEPT
(a) Clostridium (b) Escherichia (c) Salmanella (d) Shigella

81. The cells which secrets male sexhormone testosterone are:
(a) Crypts of lieberkuhn (b) Escherichia (c) Salmonella (d) Shigella

82. If QA and QC are compared
(a) Both are literally the same
(b) QA is a higher activity in the management hierarchy
(c) QA is a higher activity in the management hierarchy
(d) QA is a done by the production person and QC is done by analyst

83. Bio availability of drug refers to
(P) The ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
(Q) Fraction of the drug reaching the target to produce the action
(R) The length of time an administered drug is available for action
(S) Percentages of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
(a) Only P (b) Q and R (c) R and S (d) Only S

84. Following intravenous administration, drugs are distributed fastest to
(a) The skin, kidney, and brain
(b) The liver, kidney, and brain
(c) The liver, adipose, and brain
(d) The liver, kidney, and adipose

85. Which of the following agents act as hypoglycemic as ATP sensitive potassium channel blocker
(a) Mitiglinide (b) Pioglitazone (c) Liraglutide (d) Sitagliptin

86. Carabilide shows stongs IR absorption in which of the following range in cm-1
(a) 3200-3600 (b) 1640-1690 (c) 1000-1300 (d) 2210-2260

87. Match the drugs with their adverse effects
(1) Cyclophosphamide (P) Pulmonary fibrosis
(2) Doxorubicin (Q) Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
(3) Bleomycin (R) Acute hemorrhage cystitis
(4) Cisplatin (S) Cardiotoxicity
(a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-R (c) 1-P, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-R (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

88. Which one of the following technique is used to determine glass transition temperature
(a) X-ray diffractometry
(b) Raman spectroscopy
(c) Differential scanning calorimetry
(d) Atomic forced microscopy

89. Match the schedules with the particulars they describe
(1) Schedule T (P) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
(2) Schedule U (Q) Requirements/ guidelines to import &/or manufactures new Drug
(3) Schedule V (R) GMP practices for Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani medicines
(4) Schedule Y (S) Particulars to be shown in the manufacturing records
(a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (b) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R (c) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

90. Which of the following UV rays cause cancer
(a) UVA (b) UVB (c) UVC (d) All of the above

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91. Which are the types of antibodies involved in hypersensitivity reactions
(a) LgG and LgD (b) LgG and LgM (c) LgD and LgA (d) LgM and LgD

92. The term used to describe unequal distribution of colour on a tablet is
(a) Chipping (b) Mottling (c) Lamination (d) Double impress

93. Why acetyl chloride undergoes nucleophilic substitution at a faster rate than methyl acetate
(a) The ester is more sterically hindered than the acid chloride
(b) The chloride ion is a better leaving group than methoxide
(c) The acid chloride is more sterically hindered than the ester
(d) The methoxide ion is a better leaving group than chloride

94. The key concept of Total Quality Managements (TQM) is
(a) Total control of all quality related activities
(b) Commitment of all employees to quality improvement and having team meetings
(c) Top management’s direct involvement
(d) The Introduction ot the ISO 9000 Series

95. A drug of low water solubility when given orally is absorbed up to 90% of the administered does. The drug belongs to which class according to BCS classification
(a) Class IV (b) Class III (c) Class II (d) Class I

96. Which of the following is NOTa component of evaporator
(a) Heat exchange (b) Vacuum separator (c) Condenser (d) Cyclone separator

97. In parkinson’s disease, there is a predominant loss of dopaminergic neurons
(a) Substantia (b) Cerebellar (c) Cerebral cortext (d) Locus ceruleus

98. At equilibrium the receptor occupancy is related to drug concentration by
(a) Henderson-Hasselbach equation
(b) Hill- Langmuir equation
(c) Lineweaver-Burk equation
(d) Langmuir adsorption isother

99. Which method is not suitable to calculate area under the curve
(a) Least square method
(b) Weighing andplatometery
(c) Trapezoid rule
(d) Integration of curve

100. OROS is a technology developed for/as
(a) Oral release rapid onset system
(b) Orally rapid disintegrating tablets
(c) Osmotic controlled oral drug delivery system
(d) Transdermal drug delivery system

101. Match the events in tablet manufacturing process with the effects found in tables
(1) Rapid drying of coated tablets after coaching (P) Increased distegration time
(2) Use to highly viscous solution (Q) Weight variation
(3) Improper feed rate form hopper (R) Orange peel
(4) Excessive compression force (S) Blistering
(a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
(c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P
(d) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q

102. At pH 5, the ratio of the protonated to unprotanated forms of morphine pKa 7 would be
(a) 1:100 (b) 1:10 (c) 10:1 (d) 100:1

103. What structure is formed if the acyl side chain of penicillin is hydrolysed
(a) Penicellienic acids
(b) Penillic acids
(c) 7-Aminopenicillanic acid
(d) 6-Aminopenicillanic acid

104. The clinical trial is being conducted with 1500 volunteers which may spans on period of 2 years as per protocol. The clinical trial is in which phase
(a) Phase 1 (b) Phase 2 (c) Phase 3 (d) Phase 4

105. Which of the following drug has not undergone a clinical trial for its use to decrease intracranial pressure
(a) Dideoxyinosine (b) Zidovudine (c) Acetazolamide (d) Nicotine

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106. Colloidal depression have which type of rheology
(a) Newtonian (b) Pesudoplastic (c) Non- Newtonian (d) Dilatant

107. Which of the reactive oxygen species is most dangerous to cells
(a) Singlet oxygen (b) Hydroxyl radical (c) Superoxide (d) Peroxide

108. The Gibb’s Phase rule
(a) Holds only for systems with more than components
(b) Predicts that a maximum of three phase can exits in one components system
(c) Does not count phase compositions as intensive variables
(d) Does not count pressure and temperature as intensive variables

109. Nerve impulse from the cochlea arrive first in which region of the brain
(a) Auditory cortex (b) Thalamus (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Inferior colliculus

110. The product of a Michael reaction of a ketone enolate to ana, b-unsaturated ketone is ............. And addition reaction occurs in a/an
(a) 1,5- deketone; 1,4-fashion
(b) α - substituted acetate; 1,2 fashion
(c) β - hydorxy keto; 1,3 – fashion
(d) α, β - keto ester; 1,5 – fashion

111. Which of the following is a drug considered as potassium sparing diuretic
(a) Trimatrine (b) Chlorthiazide (c) Mannitol (d) Furosemide

112. Which of the reagent from the given can be used to protect ketone group
(a) Acidic methanol (b) Basic methanol (c) Methanol + KCN (d) Phenobarbitone

113. Which of the following drugs causes less inhibition or REM sleep
(a) Zolpidem (b) Ethanol (c) Lorazepam (d) Phenobarbitone

114. The starting materials for synthesis of sulfamethoxazole are
(a) 4- Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-chloro-5-methyl isoxazole
(b) 4- Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-amino-5-methyl isoxazole
(c) 4- Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-amino-5-methyl isoxazole
(d) 4- Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 5-chloro-5-methyl isoxazole

115. Match the following plant product with their chemical class
(1) b-amyrin (P) Alkaloid secondary alcohol
(2) Sqaulene (Q) Alkaloid, phenol
(3) Morphine (R) Triterpene, secondary alcohol
(4) Ephedrine (S) Asyclic triterpene, polyene
(a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(b) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
(c) 1-P, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-R
(d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

116. All of the following except one are subject to therapeutic drug monitoring, Which one
(a) Phenytoin (b) Lithium (c) Gentamicin (d) Losartan

117. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because
(a) It is required for the process of transamination
(b) It is a co-factor in oxidative reduction
(c) It is a co-enzyme for transketolase is pentose phosphate pathway
(d) It is a co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase & alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

118. Which of the following drugs are often found in both prescription and over-the-counter nasal decongestands
(a) Alpha 2 agonists (b) Alpha 1 agonists
(c) Alpha 1 antagonists (d) Beta 2 agonists

119. What is the surface tension of water of at 25oC
(a) 58 dyne/cm (b) 68 dyne/cm (c) 72 dyne/cm (d) 82 dyne/cm

120. Acridine and xanthene rings are related to each other in that..........
(a) Xanthene is oxygen isoster of acridine
(b) Acridine is oxygen isoster of xanthene
(c) Xanthene is nitrogen isoster of aciridine
(d) Xanthene is sulfur isoster os acridine

121. Colligative properties depend on...............
(a) Structural arrangement of atoms within the molecules of solute and solvent
(b) The number of solute particles is solution
(c) The physical properties of the solute particles dissolved is solution
(d) Sum of the corresponding properties of individual atoms or functional group within the molecules

122. In polarography..................current must be blocked
(a) Residual (b) Migration (c) Diffusion (d) None

123. The propellant commonly used in topical aerosols is
(a) Trichloromonfluoromethane (b) Trifluromonfluroethane
(c) Dichlordifluromthane (d) Isopropyl alcohol

124. Which of the following increase systolic and diastolic pressure in normal patient
(a) Epineherine (b) Norepinephrine (c) Tyramine (d) Phenylephrine

125. A large Reynold number is indication of which type of flow
(a) Smooth and stream line flow
(b) Laminar flow
(c) Steady flow
(d) Highly turbulent flow

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