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GPAT Paper, 2016 | Find out GPAT 2016 question Paper with key answers


Clinical courses


Clinical courses


{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}

1. What is the Carr’s index of good flow powder property
(a) 5-15 (b) 12-16 (c) 18-21 (d) 28-35

2. Which microorganism is involved in the assay of Rifampicin
(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Micrococcus luteus (c) Bacillus pumilus (d) Bacillus cereus

3. Which percentage of dextrose is isotonic with the blood plasma
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%

4. What is the biological source of Alexandrian Senna
(a) Cassia aungustifolia (b) Cassia acutifolia (c) Cassia Bravifolia (d) Cassia Nerifolia

5. HLB of SPAN and TWEEN surfactants may be obtained from which of the following equations
(a) HLB = E/5
(b) HLB = (E+P)/5
(c) HLB = 20 [(1- S)/A)]
(d) HLB = (hydrophilic group numbers)- (lipophilic group numbers)+7

6. If the given drug is absorbed by passive what will be its absorption kinetics
(a) Zero Order (b) First Order (c) Second order (d) Pseudo-zero Order

7. Which of the following is delayed type of her sensitivity reaction
(a) Arthus reaction (b) Penicillin sensitivity (c) Tubercullin sensitivity (d) ABO incompatibity

8. Which of the following is NOT suitable as a post-coital contraceptive
(a) Levonorgestrel 1.5mg
(b) Ulipristal acetate 30 mg
(c) Mifepristone 10-25 mg
(d) Mestranol 1.5 mg

9. Which of the following properties are characteristics of tannis
(P) They give a precipitate with alkaloids
(Q) They give a yellow of bluish red color with iron(III) chloride
(R) They transform hide into leather
(S) They give a pale-pink precipipate with iodine
(a) P, Q, S (b) P and Q (c) P and R (d) Only Q

10. Adverse drug Event reporting in the responsibility of all of the following EXCEPT
(a) Pharmacist and physician (b) Manufacturer (c) Consumer (d) Regulatory authorities

11. Time dependent dilatant behavior is knows as
(a) Thixotrophy (b) Rheopexy (c) Rheomalaxis (d) Plastic

12. Chairman of DTAB is:
(a) Health minister of India
(b) Director general of Health services
(c) Drug controller of India
(d) President of AICTE

13. Plasmodesmata is:
(a) Lignified element (b) Vascular element (c) Very fine protoplasmic thread (d) None

14. Efficiency of drug is checked in modest population in
(a) Clinical trail-phase1
(b) Clinical trail-phase2
(c) Clinical trail-phase3
(d) Clinical trail-phase4

15. Which of the following statements is correct for gram positive becteria
(a) Cell wall has a thin peptidoglycan layer
(b) Cell wall lipid content is very low and smaller volume of periplasm
(c) Lipopolysaccharide layer is present
(d) Teichoic acid is present


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16. The terms upper consulate temperature and lower consulate temperature are related to which phenomenon
(a) Cloud point
(b) Critical solution temperature
(c) Kraft point
(d) Phase inversion

17. Match the alkaloids with their synthesis precursors.
(1) Pilocarpine (P) Necleotide
(2) Connine (Q) Tryptophan
(3) Caffine (R) Histadine
(4) Yohimbine (S) Acetate derived
(a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (b) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R
(c) 1-P, 2-R, 3-S, 4-Q (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

18. Which one of the following is a solid dosage form excipient which can play the role of a diluent, a disintegrant, a glidant, a lubricant and a pore/ channel former.
(a) Lactose (b) Microcrystalline cellulose (c) Ethyl cellulose (d) Eudragit RL 100

19. What is the required floor area for running a pharmacy for wholesale or distribution
(a) 6 sq meters (b) 10 sq meters (c) 15 sq meters (d) 30 sq meters

20. Bioavailability differences among drug’s oral formulations are most likely to occur if it
(a) Is freely water soluble
(b) Is incompletely absorbed
(c) Is completely absorbed
(d) Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

21. Match the drug with their receptor profiles
(1) Ergotamine (P) 5-HT2A antagonist
(2) Ondansetron (Q) 5-HT1 partial agonist /antagonist
(3) Sumartriptan (R) 5-HT3 antagonist
(4) Ketanserin (S) 5-HT1D agonist

(a) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (b) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P (c) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (d) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

22. What strategy of drug design is frequently used on complex lead compounds derived from natural products
(a) Extension (b) Simplication (c) Rigidication (d) Conformational block

23. Which type of photon detector is commonly microfabricated into arrays of 500 or More individual detectors
(a) Photocell (b) Phototube (c) Photumultiplier tube (d) Photodiode

24. Which of the following is a phjse II drug metabolism reaction associated with genetic polymorphism
(a) Glucuroinidation (b) Acytylation (c) Reduction (d) Glutathione conjugation

25. A gram-negative diplococcus associated with urinary tract infection , pelvic inflammatory disease and conjunctivitis, meningitis is
(a) Neissria gonorrhoeae (b) Chlamdia Trachomatis
(c) Hemophilus influenza (d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

26. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect
(a) Estrogen
(b) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(c) Follicle-stimulating hormone
(d) Luteinizing hormone

27. Drug Z is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent effective for the treatment of pinworm.
Identify drug Z

(a) Phyrantel (b) Paramomycin (c) Integrase (d) Protease

28. Metheneamine used for UTI is a prodrug. How and to what is is converted into
(a) At low pH of Urine, to formaldehye
(b) At high pH of urine, to aminosalicylic acid
(c) At low pH of Urine, to amonosalicylic acid
(d) At high pH of urine,to formaldehye

29. The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is
(a) Acceleration, deflection, detection, ionization
(b) Ionization ,Acceleration, deflection, detection
(c) Acceleration, ionization, deflection, detection
(d) Acceleration, deflection, ionization, detection

30. Match the following enzymes/protein with specific functions in DNA replication
(1) Helicases (P) Processive unwinding of DNA
(2) DNA Primses (Q) Seals the single strand
(3) DNA ligases (R) Relieves torsional strain
(4) Topiosomerases (S) Initates synthesis of RNA Primers

(a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S (b) 1-P, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-R (c) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-R (d) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S


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31. Which is the first line drug for the treatment of generalized seizures
(a) Valproic acid (b) Anhydortetracycline (c) Carbamazepine (d) Doxycycline

32 Tetracyline in basic solution is usstable and forms which product
(a) Epithtracycline (b) Anhydrotetracycline (c) Isotetracycline (d) Doxycycline

33. The location of the blood-brain barrier is considered to be
(a) At the level of the brain capillaries
(b) At the level of gila
(c) At the level of neorons
(d) At the level of dendrites

34. The following drug metabolizing reaction in entirely non-microsomal:
(a) Glucuronide conjugation (b) Acetylation (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction

35. Which of the following methods is used to determine whether a process functions properly for its intended use
(a) Capacity (b) Inspection (c) Validation (d) Design Review

36. Match product, source and plant part form which they areobtained
(1) Bacosides (P) Aciacia catechu (i) Herb
(2) Cutch (P) Rubiatictorium (ii) Leaf
(3) Henna (R) Bacopamonnieri (iii) Root
(4) Alizarm (S) Lawsoniainternis (iv) Stem
(a) 1-R-ii, 2-S-I, 3Q-Q-iii, 4-P-iv (b) 1-R-I, 2-P-iv, 3-S-ii, 4-Q-i
(c) 1-Q-ii, 2-P-iii, 3-S-iv, 4-R-I (d) 1-S-ii, 2-R-iv, 3-P-I, 4-Q-i

37. What is the significance of term overfill
(a) It is similar to overage
(b) It is the excess volume to be field in containers as vials, ampoules to avoid loss by degradation
(c) It is the excess filing of container as vials, ampoules to avoid the loss during case
(d) It is violation of packaging regulation as per GMP

38. Identity the false statements
(a) A characteristics of drugs eliminated by zero order kinetic process is that the half –life is not constrains
(b) The plasma drug concertation versus time curve for a drug eliminated by zero order kinetics linear
(c) A fundamental characteristics of all first order pharmacogenetics processes is that the rate of the
process is proportional to drug concentration
(d) A characteristics of absorption by lipid diffusion is its saturability at high drug concentrations

39. 2’, 3’-Didehydro-3’-deoxy thymidine is the chemical name of which of following antiviral agents
(a) Didenosine (b) Zidovudine (c) Stavudine (d) Zalcitabine

40. Oseltamivir is antiviral drug. It produces its action by inhibiting which enzymes
(a) DNA polymerase (b) Neuraminidase (c) Praziquantel (d) Ivermectin

41. In NMR spectrum, a signal is observed as triplet. What will be the ratio of relative peak areas in this signal
(a) 1:1:1 (b) 1:2:1 (c) 1:3:1 (d) 1:4:1

42. Which problem can arise if the material to be compressed into tablet tends to adhere to die walls
(a) Picking (b) Sticking (c) Capping (d) Marbling

43. What is the half life of Tc-99m
(a) 66 years (b) 66 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 60 minute

44. Eudragits are
(a) Phthalate polymers (b) Cellulose polymers
(c) Acrylate polymers (d) Amide polymers

45. Drugs (price control ) order 1995 and related orders form time to time are enforeced by
(a) NPPA (b) CSIR (c) DBT (d) ICMR


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46. Match the drugs with plant from which they are isolated and their families
(1) Artemisinin (P) Periwinkle (i) Dioscoreaceae
(2) Diosgenin (Q) May apple (ii) Apocynaceae
(3) Etoposide (R) Sweet wormwood (iii) Berberidaceae
(4) Vinblastine and Vicnristine (S) Maxican wild yam (iv) Asteraceae
(a) 1-R-iv, 2-S-i, 3-Q-iii, 4-P-ii
(b) 1-s-iv, 2-R-i, 3-Q-iii, 4-P-ii
(c) 1-Q-iii, 2-R-ii, 3-Q-i, 4-P-iv
(d) 1-R-iv, 2-S-iii, 3-Q-i, 4-P-ii

47. Which of the following is an irreversible phenomenonralated to stability of emulsion
(a) Craking (b) Creaming (c) Coalescence (d) Flocculation

48. If a drug is highly bound to plasma proteins, what might be its reason or consequence
(a) It most likely carried by α-glycorprotien
(b) It has a high renal clearance
(c) It has a large Vd
(d) It is a likely candidate for drug interactions

49. In order to make a generic substitution ; a pharmacist must do also act as a hydrogen bond acceptor
(a) Notify the patient of the substitution
(b) Charge the same or lower price for the generic
(c) Place the brand name on the label and write “substitute for”
(d) Obtain the physician’s consent to substitute the product

50. Which of the following groups can form ionic interactions and also act as a hydrogen bond acceptor
(a) Hydroxyl group (OH)
(b) Carboxylate group (RCOO)
(c) Aminononium group (RNH3+)
(d) Ketone (C=O)

51. Which of the following drug does not give pink colour with ruthenium red
(a) Agar (b) Guar gum (c) Pectin (d) Isabgol

52. The IUPAC name, 4-Amino-N (5,6-dimethoxy-4-pyrimidinly)  benzenseulfonamide belong to which generic drug
(a) Sulfadimidine (b) Sulfadoxine (c) Sulfalene (d) Sufamerazine

53. Method of inspections used to determine the absorption rate constants. It assumes that
(P) Ka is at least five time grater activities
(Q) Absorption in complete (i.e. > 95% complete) at the time of peak concentration
(R) Both Absorption and elimination are first order processes
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) Q and R (d) P and R

54. The clinical trial registry in India is maintained by
(a) World health organization, Delhi
(b) Indian council of medical research , New Delhi
(c) Institute of Clinical Research, New Delhi
(d) Central drugs standard control Organization, New Delhi

55. What is the correct order for unsaturation in following fatty acids
(1) Palmitoleic Acid (2) Linolenic (3) Linoleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
(a) 1>2>3>4 (b) 3>4>2>1 (c) 4>3>2>1 (d) 4>2>3>1

56. Which of the following is an example of Diaz onium ion
(a) CH3+N3- (b) CH3N2+ (c) H2N-NH3+ (d) None of these

57. Which term describes ‘The degree to which a set of inherent properties of a product system , of rocess fulfils requirements, the best’
(a) Standard (b) Quality (c) Quality objective (d) State of control

58. What will be AUC value of lidocaine if the administered dose is 0.2 g and the total body clearance is 45 L/h
(a) 4.44 (b) 0.0044 (c) 9.00 (d) 9000 h. mg/L

59. Toluene is converted of which compound in presence of CrO3 with acetic anhydride
(a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Benzaldehyde (c) Benzoic acid (d) Benzoin

60. Match the antimalarial drugs with their modes of action
(1) Artemisinin (P) Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Tranport
(2) Pyremethamine (Q) Inhibition of heme polymerase
(3) Quinine (R) Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered redicals
(4) Atovaquone/Proguanil (S) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
(a) 1-P, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-R (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
(c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P


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61. Methyl ether of erythromycin is ........................
(a) Clarithromycin (b) Dirithromycina (c) Azithromycin (d) Mithramycin

62. Ebullioscopicmethod is based on which of the following observation
(a) Freezing point depression
(b) Boiling point elevation
(c) Osmotic pressure change
(d) None of the above

63. How many fundamental svibrations can be expected for C2H5CL
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 18

64. Which of the antibodies provide passive immunity to newborn baby
(a) lgG (b) lgM (c) lgA (d) lgE

65. Increased number of number mitosis may be present in the following tissue EXCEPT
(a) Bone marrow cells (b) Nails (c) Hepatocytes (d) Intestinal Cells

66. To which chemical class the vinca alkaloids belong
(a) Tropane (b) Indole (c) Tryptopha (d) Purine

67. An antibiotic thatn resembles the 3’ end of a charged tRNA molecule is
(a) Streptomycin (b) Vincamycin (c) Puromycin (d) Tetracycline

68. If the cohesive forces in between similar molecules are less than the adhesive forces between dissimilar\ molecules, a deviation in Raolt’s law is observed . here witch deviation will be seen.
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Absent (d) Either positive or negative

69. Phenylalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics is higher plants is a product of which one of the following pathways
(a) Shikimic acid pathway
(b) Malonic acid pathway
(c) Mevalonic acid pathway
(d) Methylerhtritol pathway

70. Within how many days a pharmacist should dispense diluted aqueous mixtures
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 30 days

71. What molecular feature is penicillin G is said o mimic
(a) Disaccharide of N-acetylmuranicanidN- actylgulcosamine
(b) N-acetylneuraminic acid
(c) The pentapeptide moiety of five glycine units
(d) The dipeptide moiety D-ala-D-Ala

72. If a drug is known to be distributed into total body water, how many milligrams are needed to obtain an initial plasma level of 5mg/L in a patient weighting 70 kg
(a) 210 (b) 150 (c) 50 (d) 35

73. What does ‘pharmacokinetical compartment’ mean
(a) Part of the body water which is located is the vascular system
(b) Total body water
(c) Plasma, intracellular fluid, together , anatomical water compartments where drug is absorbed
(d) Part of the body water in which the change of a drug concentration has the same kinetics

74. The resistance to macrolide antibiotics by of gram positive organism is developed due to
(a) Decreases uptake of antibiotics
(b) Synthesis of esterase enzyme that hydrolyzes lactone ring of macrolide
(c) Methylation of 50S subunit at the antibiotic binding site
(d) Increased metabolism of antibiotic

75. The ethanolic solution contaminated with benzele showed absorbance of 0.69 at 260 nm in a 2 cm cell if the molar absorptivity of benzene in thanolis 230 M-1cm-1, what is the concentration of benzene in the solution
(a) 0.003 M (b) 0.0015 M (c) 0.001M (d) 0.015M



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