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GPAT 2017 | Question paper with key solutions


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76-125 questions are available below:

76. Rubella virus is associated with disease
(a) Progressive encephalitis (b) Enterovirus infection (c) Yellow fever (d) Brucellosis

77. Which among the following electronic systems are not involved in the origin of UV spectrum
(a) s and p shell electrons
(b) sigma and pi electrons
(c) Charge transfer electrons
(d) d and f shell electrons

78. Which of the following is not a thermoplastic resin
(a) Phenolic plastic resin (b) Polystyrene (c) Polyethylene (d) Polypropylene

79. Choose the right combination from the following
(1) Diacytic stomata and sessile Trichome (A) Datuar
(2) Paracytic stomata and Unicellular and multi cellular (B) Vasaka
(3) Anomocytic stomata and Unicellular and multi cellular (C) Senna
(4) Anisocytic stomata and Multicellular covering trichome (D) Digitalis

(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

80. Pharmaceutical alternatives possess
(a) Indentical therapeutic moiety/precursor but not in the same amount/dosage form
(b) Same amount of therapeutic moiety
(c) Same dosage form
(d) Same formulation ingredients in exactly same amount of dose

81. Topical application of timolol to the eye would be expected to induce which of the following
(a) Decreased formation of aqueous humor
(b) Miosis
(c) Mydriasis
(d) Increased outflow of aqueous humor

82. The major component of liquid glucose is ..........and is prepared from _______
(a) Maltose, Pectin (b) Dextrin, Starch (c) Dextrose, Starch (d) Glucose, Starch

83. Which of the following formulations under ASU system are offered infinite period of shelf life in D and C Act
(a) Asava&Arishta (b) Churna (c) Ghutika (d) Kwatha

84. Which of the following is an example of hemiesters anionic surfactant for pharmaceutrical emulsions
(a) Sulfosuccinates (b) Sarcosinates (c) Taurates (d) Lactylates

85. The major differences between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic protein synthesis mechanisms are in which part of the process
(a) The initiation of synthesis
(b) The chain elongation process
(c) The chain termination process
(d) None of the above

86. In DNA replication the newly added nucleotide is joined to the growing DNA strand by an enzyme
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) Restriction endonuclease
(d) Reverse transcriptase

87. Glycosides are condensation products of
(a) Protein + aglycone
(b) Sugar + Protein
(c) Sugar + aglycone
(d) Fats + aglycone

88. Which of the following dosage form of digoxin will provide greater bioavailability based onvalue of F
(a) F equals 1.0 (b) F equals 0.32 (c) F equals 0.62 (d) F equals 0.77

89. The process by which the formed elements of blood develop is call as hemopoiesis. In the process of hemopoiesis the stem cells are converted in to myeloid stem cell and subsequently differentiated and are developed into precursor cells. Match the following precursor cells with the formed elements of blood from which they are formed.
(1) Reticulocyte (A) Platelets
(2) Megakaryoblast (B) Macrophages
(3) Myeloblast (C) Erythrocytes
(4) Monoblast (D) Neutrophils
(a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

90. Using Young’s rule, calculate the dose for a 5 year old child if the adult dose is 340mg
(a) 200 mg (b) 100 mg (c) 400 mg (d) 800 mg

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91. Which among the following statements on electro analytical methods are correct
(a) Measures conductance between two electrodes with AC powered Wheatstone bridge
(b) Polarography involves plotting of conductance – voltage
(c) Potentiometry involves application of Ilkovicequation
(d) Coulometry involving application of Nernst law relating equivalence between quantity of electricity passed and amount of compound generated at electrodes

92. Chemical interferences are common than spectral interferences due to
(a) Formation of compounds of low volatility
(b) Ionization in flames
(c) Increase in rate of atomization
(d) No shift in ionization equilibrium

93. Phase 0 studies means
(a) In vitro studies
(b) Part of phase I studies of clinical trials
(c) First in human microdosing studies
(d) Studies carried out on small number of animals

94. Condensation product of Ethyl isopentyl ester of diethyl malonic acid with urea and sodium ethoxide yields
(a) Amylobarbitone (b) Phenobarbitone (c) Pentobarbitone (d) Quinobarbitone

95. Clavulanic acid is
(a) Inactivates bacterial - lactamase
(b) Protien inhibitor of peptidoglycan synthesis
(c) Specific for gram negative bacteria
(d) Inhibitor of 50S ribosomal subunit

96. The method by which different constituents of a liquid mixture can be separated without decomposition of the constituents is
(a) Distillation under reduced pressure
(b) Molecular distillation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Fractional distillation

97. The preferred rheological behavior of Pharmaceutical suspensions is that of
(a) Pseudoplasticity and thixotrophy
(b) Pseudoplasticity
(c) Dilatancy and thixotrophy
(d) Pseudoplasticity and rheopexy,

98. An inventory turnover of .......... a year is considered satisfactory
(a) Four to six times, Six
(b) To eight times
(c) One to two times
(d) None of the above

99. The number of glucopyranose units in the structure of alpha cyclodextrins are
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

100. The compound 2 - (Diethylamino) ethyl [bicyclohexyl] - 1-carboxylate hydrochloride is
(a) Dicycloverine
(b) Diphenhydramine
(c) Both nicotinic and specific antispasmodic,
(d) Diagonistic agent for diagnosis of thyroid gland,

101. In new product development process, after analysis of business next step to be taken is _______
(a) Test marketing
(b) Penetration marketing
(c) Brand marketing
(d) Individual marketing

102. Which of the following alkaloid (form) is used to treat migrane
(a) VInca (b) Coca (c) Ergot (d) Belladonna

103. Free flowing powders show a flatter cone and have ________
(a) Smaller angle of repose
(b) Larger angle of repose,
(c) Intermediate angle of repose
(d) None of the above,

104. The WIPO is the specialized agency of the United Nations. It promotes protection of _______throghout the world
(a) Intellectual properties
(b) World properties
(c) Pharmaceutical organizations
(d) Finace companies

105. Herpesviruses are large encapsulated viruses that have double stranded DNA genome thatencodes approximately 70 proteins. It causes acute infection followed by latent infection in which virus persist in noninfectious form with periodic reactivation and shedding of infectious virus. Following are the examples of such herpesvirus - except
(a) Epstein-Barr Virus
(b) Herpes simplex
(c) Varicella Zoster
(d) Cytomegalovirus

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106. A fatty acid not synthesized in human body and has to be supplied in diet is
(a) Stearic acid (b) Oleic acid (c) Palmitic acid (d) linolenic acid

107. Chemical class of drugs that are susceptible to oxidation are
(a) Esters (b) Lactam (c) Sterols (d) Carbamates

108. The only analgesic acting centrally is ____________
(a) Methadone (b) Naloxane (c) Tramadol (d) Naloxane

109. Neuropathy is adverse effect of
(a) Isoniazid (b) Ethambutol (c) Pyrazinamide (d) Dapsone

110. As per I.P. if the solubility range of a solute is 30 to 100 parts, it will be
(a) Soluble (b) Freely soluble (c) Sparingly soluble (d) Slightly soluble

111. SDS is used in PAGE of a mixture of proteins for their efficient separation on the gel. SDS, in the experiment is used to ___________
(a) Have uniform charge density on the proteins (b) Stabilize the proteins
(c) Decrease the surface tension of buffer (d) Solubilize the proteins

112. Indicate which of the following statements is true
(a) A weakly acidic drug is unionised when pH of the solution is at last 2 pH units below its pKa
(b) Acidic drugs are noninonized at pH 9
(c) Acidic drugs are less soluble in alkaline solution
(d) The higher the pKaof a weak acid, the stronger is acid

113. Dissemination of cancer occurs through one of the following pathway - except
(a) Migration (b) Direct seeding (c) Lymphatic spread (d) Hematogenous spread

114. Which of the following alkaloids has hypotensive activity
(a) Emetine (b) Quinine (c) Reserpine (d) Papaverine

115. Which of the following is a characteristic of cytochrome P-450
(a) Catalyzes aromatic and aliphatic hydroxylations
(b) Located in the lipophilic environment of mitochondrial membrane
(c) Catalyzes O-, S-, N methylation reactions
(d) Catalyzes conjugation reactions

116. The Michalis-Menten equation for standard for saturated active transport system is-
(a) Vmax = kcat[E0] (b) Vmax = km (c) Vmax =km [S] (d) None

117. Which among the following describe the characteristic features of Tetracyline
(a) Undergoes epimerization in solutions having intermediate pH range
(b) Forms Anhydroustetracycline in presence of acidic
(c) Forms Minocycline in basic medium
(d) Forms stable chelate complexes with potassium ions

118. Cells that contribute for immune system are
1. T Lymphocytes
2. Eosinophil
3. B Lymphocytes
4. Dendritic cells
5. Erythrocytes
6. Natural killer cells
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 6 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6

119. Dielectric constant of Ethanol at room temperature is almost equal to
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 54 (d) 72

120. Foaming during liquid filling can be reduced by following ways, except
(a) Increase in speed of the filling line
(b) Minimised product turbulence
(c) Closed system filling
(d) Defoaming device

121. If the excitation energy of the resonance level is 2.10 eV (when hc=12,330) then the wave-lengthof resonance line of sodium atoms is ________
(a) 577.2 nm (b) 587.2 nm (c) 567.2 nm (d) 597.2 nm

122. After vascular injury, platelets encounter extracellular matrix constituents such as collagen and adhesive glycoprotein. On contact with these proteins platelets undergo
1. Adhesion
2. Secretion
3. Aggregation
4. Degradation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

123. A reporting relationship in which an employee receives orders from, and reports to, only one supervisor is known as _________
(a) Unity of command (b) Centralisation
(c) Decentralisation (d) Line of authority

124. In humans end product of purine catabolism is
(a) Uric acid (b) Urea (c) Purine oxide (d) Xanthine

125. Which of the following adverse effects is caused by thioridazine
(a) Tardive dyskinesia
(b) Constipation
(c) Orthostatic hypotension
(d) All of the above

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