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GPAT-2011 PAPER

{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}

Q.1      Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A)   Shikimic acid - tyrosine     B)   Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C)   Shikimic acid - cathinone    D)   Shikimic acid - phenylalanine

Q.2      Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A)   Prunus serona    B)   Tribulus terrestis
(C)   Ammi visnaga    D)   Vanilla planifolia

Q.3      Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division and release of lateral bud dormancy?
(A)   Zeatin  
(B)   2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C)   Indoleacetic acid  
(D)    Picloram

Q.4      A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?
(A)   Clove bud powder    (B)   Clove bud powder with stalk
(C)   Mother Clove            (D)   None of the above

Q.5      Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?
(A)   Ergosine    (B)   Ergotamine    (C)   Ergocristine      (D)   Ergometrine

Q.6      Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?
(A)   Tannins    (B)   Steroids    (C)   Glycerides        (D)   Resins

Q.7      Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
(A)   Colchicine    (B)   Papaverine    (C)   Emetine    (D)   Cephaline

Q.8      Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):
[P]    Stearic    [Q] Oleic acid     [R]   Linolenic acid    [S]  Linoleic acid
(A)   P>Q>R>S    (B)   S>R>P>Q       (C)   R>S>Q>P    (D)   Q>P>R>S

Q.9 Each of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semisynthetic analogue. Find a MISMATCHING option.
(A)    Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
(B)    Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
(C)    Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
(D)   THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone

Q.10 Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation inhibitory action?
(A)   ADP receptor antagonism
(B)   Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
(C)    Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(D)    Prostacvclin inhibition

Q.11 Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl peptidase-4?
(A)   Oxytocin    (B)   Vasopressin    (C)   Incretin    (D)   Glucagon

Q.12    Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.
[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A9-£rares-tetrahydrocannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol -
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A)    P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
(B)    P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
(C)    P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D)    P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false

Q.13 Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450 enzyme system is most likely to be involved in important drug-drug interactions?
(A)   CYP3A4    (B)   CYP2D6    (C)   CYP2C9    (D)   CYP1A2

Q.14    Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy    ],Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis    [S] Ulcerative colitis
(A)    Q & S are autoimmune disorders
(B)    P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C)    P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D)    R & S are not autoimmune disorders

Q.15    Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the following active ingredients?
(A)   Estradiol    (B)   Norethindron
(C)   Misoprostol    (D)   Levonorgesterel

Q.16    Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of  which of its following actions?
(A)   Integrase inhibition      (C)  CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
(G)   Fusion inhibition                            (D)    Reverse transcriptase inhibition

Q.17    Which one of the followings is NOT an exa—.pie of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A)   Muscarinic cholinergic receptor    (B)   Alpha adrenoceptor
(G)   Nicotinic cholinergic receptor                 (D)    Beta adrenoceptor

Q.18    Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A)    It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
(B)    It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
(C)    It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D)    It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria

Q.19    Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect?
(A)   Ceftazidime       (B)   Azithromycin        (C)   Amikacin    (D)   Piperacillin

Q.20    What is chemotaxis?
(A)    Toxicity of chemicals
(B)    Taxonomy of chemicals
(C)    Inhibition of Inflammation
.(D)   Movement of leucocytes in inflammation

Q.21    Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?
(A)   Anakinra    (B)   Leflunomide    (C)   Etanercept       (D)   Infliximab

Q.22    Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase in HIV?
(A)   Lamivudine      (B)   Nevirapine    (C)   Abacavir    (D)   Tenofovir

Q.23    Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A)   Penicillanic acid    (B)   Embonic acid
(C)   Cephalosporanic acid    (D)   Clavulanic acid

Q.24    Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
(A)   Ethosuximide    (B)   Vigabatrin   (C)   Valproic acid     (D)   Primidone

Q.25    Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry for drjing of soft shell capsules?
(A)   Truck drying    (B)   Fluid bed drying
(C)   Vacuum drying    (D)   Microwave drying

Q.26    If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?
(A)   C < 20% of Cs   (B)   C > 20% of Cs       (C)   C < 10% of Cs   (D)   C > 10% of Cs

Q.27    All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that.
(A)   Hypertension    (B)   Myocardial infarction
(C)   Left ventricular dysfunction    (D)   Pheochromocytoma

Q.28    Which water is  used    for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?
(A)   Potable water    (B)   Purified water
(C)   Disinfectant water    (D)   Soap water

Q.29    Which one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?
(A)   Zeolites    (B)   Dextrins    (C)   Silica gels    (D)   Cyclodextrins

Q.30    Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose bioavailability study of an immediate release product?
(A)Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 ei
(B)Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
(C)There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
(D)Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC

Q.31    Which of the following isothem are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV
(B) Type II and V
(C) Type I and III
(D) Type III and V

Q.32    The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow hood should be not less than how many cubic feet per minute?
(A)   10    (B)   50      (C) 100      (D) 1000

Q.33    Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
(A)   Turbine pump    (B)   Volute Pump (C)   Air binding pump    (D)   Baltic pump

Q.34    Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
(A)   57.77° under proof    (B)    57.77° over proof
(C)   47.41° over proof      (D)   47.41° under proof

Q.35    What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:
(A)   2790 cal/ mole    B>   7290 cal / mole
(C)   7920 cal/mole    (D)   9720 cal/mole

Q.36    Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
(A)    Triethanolamine oleate
(B)    Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
(C)    N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
(D)    Dioctyl sulphosuccinate

Q.37    Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
(A)   Schedule F       (B)   Schedule M    (C)   Schedule G     (D)   Schedule P

Q.38    By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?
(A)   Polyethylene glycol    (B)   Sorbitol
(C)   Propylene glycol    (D)   Dibutyl phthalate

Q.39    Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
(A)   Strip packing    (B)   Aerosols
(C)   Injection packing    (D)   Glass containers

Q.40 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A)    500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
(B)    1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
(C)    4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
(D)    1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%

Q.41    P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
(A)    Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
(B)    Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
(C)    Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
(D)    Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.

Q.42 The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is
characterized by which one of the followings?
(A)   Capillary state    (B)   Pendular state
(C)   Funicular state    (D)   Droplet state

Q.43 The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
(A)   2.0    (B)   1.5    (C)   0.75    (D)   0.5

Q.44 A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours. Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration of the drug?
(A)   5.05mcg/ml      (B)   4.50 mcg/ml    (C)   3.53 mcg/ml      (D)   3.00 mcg/ml

Q.45    Statement [X] :    Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes as per their ionic size.
Statement [Y] :    The relative coagulating power is given by:

[P] Al+++ > Ba++    [Q] Li- > F-    [R] NH4+ > Na+ Choose the correct statement :
(A)    Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B)    Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C)    Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D)    Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y

Q.46    Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of tablets?
(A)   Harder tablets    (B)   Softer tablets
(C)   Fluffy tablets    (D)   Brittle tablets

Q.47    Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A)   Klotz reciprocal plot    (B)   Sandberg modified equation
(C)   Blanchard equation    (D)   Detli plot

Q.48 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?
(A)   1%    (B)   2%    (C)   4%    (D)   5%

Q.49    Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A)    It is also called differential distillation
(B)    It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids -
(C)    It can be applied for volatile substances
CD)   It can be used for separation of miscible liquids

Q.50    What is Primogel?
(A)    Substituted HPMC for direct compression
(B)    Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
(C)    Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation
(D)    Modified starch for disintegration

Q.51    Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.
Statement [QJ : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.
Choose the correct statement?

(A)    Both of the above statements P & Q are true
(B)    Both of the above statements P & Q are false
(C)    Statement P is true and Q is false
(D)    Statement P is false and Q is true

Q.52 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a dose of 500 mg is absorbed upto 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification?
(A)   Class I    (B)   Class II    (C)   Class III    (D)   Class IV

Q.53 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of,
(A)   1 : 4    (B)   1 : 6    (G)   1: √2    (D)   1: √3

Q.54 Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Its usage is dependent on the release of the following emissions:
[P] Alpha particles       [Q] Positrons    [R] Beta emission        [S] Gamma radiation
Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A)   R&S    (B)   Q&S    (C)   P&R    (D)   P&S

Q.55 Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an electron withdrawing group is attached to one of the carbons bearing the double bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
(A)   It remains electrophilic    (B)   It becomes free radical addition
(C)   It becomes pericyclic reaction    (D)   It becomes nucleophilic

Q.56 Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to which one of the following reasons?
(A)    Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating electron density in the ring than the six-membered ones
(B)    Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron density in the ring than the six-membered ones
(C)    Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which affects their reaction rates
(D)    Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones are puckered

Q.57 Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of acidity (highest to lowest)?
[P] C2H5OH    [Q] H3C-CsCH    [R] H20    [S] CH3NH2
(A)   R>P>Q>S    (B)   P>R>Q>S       (C)   P>Q>R>S    (D)   R>Q>P>S

Q.58 Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement in the rate of such reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
(A)    Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
(B)    Solvation of both of the ionic species
(C)    Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
(D)    Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected

Q.59 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about them?
(A)    Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or days in their formation
(B)    Labile complexes take much longer tine in formation than inert complexes
(C)    Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes are      stable in water
(D)    Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while inert complexes do not decompose

Q.60 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then treatment with N-(l-naphthyl)ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under estimation?
(A)    Streptomycin sulphate    B    Thiamine hydrochloride
(C)    Dexamethasone    (D)   Sulphamethoxazole

Q.61 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and zinc are + 0.337 V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
(A)   Zinc metal electrode will start cussohing.in solution while copper ions will start depositing on the copper electrode.
(B)    Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions will start depositing on the zinc electrode
(C)    Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
(D)    Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes

Q.62 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the correct statement about them?
(A)    Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
(B)    Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
(C)   Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion complex
(D)    Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion in complexometric titrations

Q.63    Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in aquametry?
(A)   Sodium tartrate dihydrate    (B)   Copper sulphate pentahydrate
(C)    Sodium iodide                     (D)   Sodium thiosulphate

Q.64    The following statements are given:
[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single bond while configurational isomers cannot be interconverted without breaking a bond.
[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive while conformational isomers are optically inactive
[R]    Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures
[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of configurational isomers.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & S are true while R is false AB) P, R & S are true while Q is false
(C)   Q, R & S are true while P is false    (D)   P, Q & R are true while S is false

Q.65    Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r):
Assertion (a): Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction while acetaldehyde and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol condensation.
Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol condensation while ketones undergo only Cannizaro reaction.
(A)   Both (a) and (r) are false    (B)   (a) is true but (r) is false
(C)   (a) is false but (r) is true    (D)   Both (a) and (r) are true

Q.66    Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide?
(A)    Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(B)    Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(C)    Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be mentioned by specifying the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in abbreviations
(D)    It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is to be written

Q.67    A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
(A)    Accept an electron to give a carbene
(B)    Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
(C)    Combine with a negative ion
(D)    Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane

Q.68    Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
(A)    These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
(B)    These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
(C)    These reactions show a large element effect
(D) These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange

Q.69    Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A)    Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(B)    Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
(C)    Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(D)    Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins

Q.70    Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy wave length?
(A)   -CH3    (B)   -NHCH3    (O   -CI    (D)   -C=0

Q.71    Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence of light and air to a toxic compound. Identify that.
(A)   CH2C12    (B)   COCl2    (C)   CO    (D)   CCl4

Q.72    Given are the four statements about NMB:
[P]    13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR [Q]   Both 13C and :H have 1=1/2
[R]   Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the applied magnetic field
[S]    Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to heteroatoms.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q & R are true while S is false    (B)   R, S & Q are true while P is false
(C)   S, P & Q are true while R is false    (D)   All are true

Q.73    Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error' and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes?
(A)   Hydrogen electrode    (B)   Quinhydrone electrode
(C)   Saturated calomel electrode    (D)   Glass Electrode

Q.74    What is the wavenumber equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A)   0.0025 cm-1       (B)   0.25 cm-1    (C)   2500 cm-1    (D)   25000 cm-1

Q.75    All of the given compounds show n —> a* transition. Identify which one will have the highest λmax?
(A)   Methanol    (B)   Methylamine
(C)   Methyl iodide    (D)   Methyl bromide

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