GPAT-2012 PAPER
{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}
Q.1.Which of the following respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drug biotransformation reactions?
(A) Oxidation and Glucuronidation
(B) Reduction and Acetylation
(C) Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation
(D) Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation
Q.2 Which one of the following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action?
(A) Dopamine (B) Epinephrine (C) Digoxin (D) Isoprenaline
Q.3 Which one of the following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first line therapy for heart failure and has shown decreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayed disease progression?
(A) Cardiac glycosides (C) Renin Antagonists
(B) ACE Inhibitors (ACEIs) (D) Nitrites
Q.4 Which one of the following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus?
(A) Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2)
(B) Glucose transporter-1 (GLUT1)
(C) Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLT1)
(D) Glucose transporter-2 (GLUT2)
Q.5 Which one of the following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk of infection with single exposure?
(A) Transfusion of blood and blood products
(B) Perinatal - from mother to child
(C) Sexual contacts with infected partners
(D) Syringe sharing with drug addicts
Q.6 Which of the followings are the critical neurotransmitters playing major role in depression?
(A) Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine
(B) Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin
(C) Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid
(D) Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid
Q.7 A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four months. Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of the followings is the right addition to his therapy to manage peripheral neuritis?
(A) Cyanocobalamin (B) α-Lipoic acid
(C) Pyridoxine (D) Prednisolone
Q.8 What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
(A) Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
(B) Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
(C) Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
(D) Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels
Q.9 Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions and arrhythmia?
(A) Prednisolone (B) Salmeterol (C) Zafirlukast (D) Theophylline
Q.10 Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium and calcium channels?
(A) Quinidine (B) Lignocaine (C) Amiodarone (D) Flecainide
Q.11 A 48 years old woman is having the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin. These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings?
(A) Over use of corticosteroid (B) Hypothyroidism
(C) Estrogen deficiency (D) Over use of thyroxin sodium
Q.12 Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs used in the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonly used drugs, alone or in combination, for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus:
[P] : Metformin [Q]: Pioglitazone
[R]: Glipizide [S] : Sitagliptin
Choose the correct combination which is weight neutral and without risk of hypoglycemia.
(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) R and S (D) P and S
Q.13 Which one of the following receptors is NOT a ligand-gated ion channel receptor?
(A) Nicotinic Receptor (B) 5HT3 - Receptor
(C) GABAA - Receptor (D) H2 - Receptor
Q.14 Which one of the following classes of drugs causes side effects like dryness of mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?
(A) Anti-adrenergic (B) Anti-cholinergic
(C) An ti-serotonergic (D) Anti-dopaminergic
Q.15 Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1
(B) Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids
(C) Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes
(D) Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A
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Q.16 Which one of the followings is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
(A) They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on receptor
(B) They have no intrinsic activity
(C) They cause parallel rightward shift of the control dose response curve
(D) Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
Q.17 Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
(A) Sustained hyperprolactinemia
(B) Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms
(C) Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)
(D) Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade
Q. 18 Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
(A) Hydralazine (B) Minoxidil
(C) Diazoxide (D) Sodium nitroprusside
Q.19 Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:
[Pj : Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q] : Inhibition of DNA polymerase
[Rl : Immunomodulation [S] : Inhibition of viral penetration
Choose the correct option:
(A) R is correct and Q is incorrect (B) Q is correct and S is incorrect
(C) P is correct and R is incorrect (D) S is correct and P is incorrect
Q.20 All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:
[P] : Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline
[R] : Phenylephrine [S] : Noradrenaline
Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.
(A) P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(B) Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(C) R and S increase systolic blood pressure
(D) P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
Q.21 All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.
[P] : Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine
[R] : Vecuronium [S] : d-Tubocurarine
Choose the correct statement about them.
(A) P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(B) Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(C) R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
(D) P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
Q.22 Which one of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?
(A) Imatinib (B) Paclitaxel (C) Ezetimibe (D) Mitomycin
Q.23 Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?
(A) Estrogens
(B) Progesterone
(C.) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
(D) Corticotropic Hormone
Q.24 Followings are some opioid analgesics:
[P] : Morphine [Q]: Pethidine
[R] : Pentazocine [S] : Fentanyl
Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.
(A) P>Q>R>S (B) Q>P>R>S (C) R>P>Q>S (D) S>P>Q>R
Q.25 Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:
[P] : Peptic ulcer [Q] : Bronchial asthma
[R] : Nephrotic syndrome [S] : Myasthenia gravis
Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.
(A) P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT
(B) P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT
(C) Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT
(D) P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT
Q.26 Which one of the following statements is FALSE for fluoroquinolones?
(A) These are highly effective by oral and parenteral routes
(B) These are relatively more susceptible to development of resistance
(C) These are effective against those bacteria that are resistant to ß-lactam and aminoglycoside antibiotics
(D) These are bactericidal with broad spectrum of activity
Q.27 Increased serum levels of which one of the followings may be associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
(A) VLDL (B) LDL
(C) HDL (D) Total Cholesterol
Q.28 Metformin causes the following actions EXCEPT for the one. Identify that.
(A) Reduces hepatic neoglucogenesis
(B) Increases glucose uptake in skeletal muscles
(C) Enhances sensitivity to insulin
(D) Increases HbA1c by 1% to 2%
Q.29 Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action on gastrointestinal mucosa because of one of the following actions. Identify that.
(A) It enhances secretion of mucus and bicarbonate ion
(B) It neutralizes hydrochloric acid in stomach
(C) It antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(D) It is bactericidal to H. pylori
Q.30 Which of the following drugs can precipitate bronchial asthma?
[P] : Indomethacin [Q] : Codeine phosphate
[R] : Rabeprazole [S] : Theophylline
Choose the correct option.
(A) P and R can do that (B) P and Q can do that
(C) R and S can do that (D) S and Q can do that
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Q.31 Which one of the following alkaloids is derived from Lysine?
(A) Emetine (B) Chelidonine (C) Lobeline (D) Stachydrine
Q.32 Histologically the barks of Cinnamomum cassia and Cinnamomum zeylanicum differ in one of the following features. Identify that.
(A) Sclerieds
(B) Phloem Fibers
(C) Pericyclic Fibres
(D) Cortex
Q.33 The following characteristic properties are given in context of saponins:
[P] : Saponins give precipitate by shaking with water.
[Q] : Saponins are diterpenes and give foam on shaking with water.
[R] : Saponins are triterpenoidal compounds and cause haemolysis of erythrocytes.
[S] : They are steroidal or triterpenoidal compounds with tendency to reduce surface tension of water.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
Q.34 Read the given statements about the constituents of Shellac:
[P] : Shellolic acid, a major component of alicyclic fraction is responsible for colour.
[Q]: Shellolic acid, a major component of aromatic fraction is responsible for colour.
[R] : Shellolic acid is a major component of aliphatic fraction and laccaic acid is a
component of aromatic fraction.
[S] : Aliphatic components are shellolic acid which is alicyclic and aleuratic acid
which is acyclic, while laccaic acid is an aromatic colouring principle.
What is the correct combination of options?
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is true; Q is false; R is false; S is true
Q.35 Major component of Cymbopogon citratus is citral which is utilized commercially for the followings:
[P] : Synthesis of Vitamin A directly from citral
[Q] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone
[R] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first converting to T-ionone followed by conversion to a-ionone which is very important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis
[S] : Synthesis of Vitamin A by first conversion of citral to T-ionone followed by conversion to P-ionone which is an important intermediate for carotenoid synthesis
Which is the correct combination of options?
(A) P is true; Q is true; R is true; S is true
(B) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is true
(C) P is false; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is false; R is false; S is false
Q.36 Which one of the following constituents is reported to have anti-hepatotoxic activity?
(A) Podophyllotoxin (C) Linalool
(B) Andrographoloid (D) Safranal
Q.37 Geranial and Neral are the monoterpene aldehyde constituents of volatile oil. Read the following statements about them:
[P] : Geranial and Neral are both optical isomers
[Q] : Geranial and Neral are both geometric isomers
[R] : Geranial has Z configuration and Neral has E configuration
[S] : Geranial has E configuration and Neral has Z configuration
(A) Choose the correct combination of answers for them.
(B) P is false; Q is true; R is true; S is false
(C) P is true; Q is false; R is true; S is true
(D) P is false; Q is true; R is false; S is false
Q.38 All of the followings applicable to Lignans are correct statements except for one. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
(A) Lignans are formed by the dimerization of the phenylpropane moiety
(B) Podophyllotoxin can be termed phytochemically as a lignan
(C) Lignans can be formed by cyclization of phenylpropane nucleus
(D) Lignans are the secondary metabolites formed from the Shikimic acid pathway
Q.39 Naringin, obtained from orange peel, can be named as one of the followings. Identify the correct name.
(A) 5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavanone
(B) 5,4'-Dihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavanone
(C) 5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-rhamnoglucoside of flavone
(D) 5,3',4'-Trihydroxy-7-glucoside of flavone
Q.40 Rhizomes of Zingiber officinale contain some sesquiterpene hydrocarbons. Some hydrocarbons are given below:
[P] : ß-Bisabolene [Q]: Gingerone A
[R] : Gingerol [S] : Zingiberene
Identify the correct pair of constituents present in the rhizomes.
(A) PandS (B) P and Q (C) Q and S (D) Q and R
Q.41 Listed below are the chemical tests used to identify some groups of phytoconstituents. Identify the test for the detection of the purine alkaloids.
(A) Keller-Killani Test (C) Shinoda Test
(B) Murexide Test (D) Vitali-Morin Test
Q.42 Given below are four statements in context of Hecogenin:
[P] : It is a saponin
[Q] : It is useful for the semi-synthesis of steroidal drugs
[R] : It is not a glycoalkaloid
[S] : It is obtained from Dioscorea tubers
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q and R are correct while S is incorrect
(B) P, Q and S are correct while R is incorrect
(C) Q, R are correct while P, S are incorrect
(D) All are correct statements
Q.43 Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of precursors. Identify the correct pair.
(A) Ornithine and Phenylalanine
(B) Tyrosine and Tryptophan
(C) Tryptophan and Dopamine
(D) Tyrosine and Dopamine
Q.44 Study the following statements:
[P] : Lutein and zeaxanthin are flavonoids
[Q]: Lutein and zeaxanthin are xanthophylls
[R] : Lutein and zeaxanthin are required to control age-related macular degeneration
[S] : Lutein is a flavonoid while zeaxanthin is its glycoside Choose the correct answer.
(A) P is correct while Q, R and S are incorrect
(B) Q and R are correct while P and S are incorrect
(C) Statement P is the only correct statement
(D) Statement S is the only correct statement
Q.45 Listed below are some phytoconstituents.
[P] : Galactomannan [Q]: Glucomannan
[R] : Barbaloin [S] : Phyllanthin
Identify the constituent(s) present in Aloe vera.
(A) OnlyP (B) Q and R (C) Only S (D) P and S
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Q.46 Choose the correct answer for the binomial nomenclature of fruits of star-anise.
(A) Pimpinella anisum (B) Illicium verum
(C) Illicium anisatum (D) Illicium religiosum
Q.47 Given herewith are two statements:
[P] : Digitoxin is a secondary glycoside from Digitalis purpurea
[Q]: Digitoxin is a partially hydrolysed glycoside of Purpurea glycoside A
Determine the correctness of the above statements.
(A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true but Q is false
(C) Both P and Q are false (D) P is false but Q is true
Q.48 Peruvoside is naturally obtained from one of the following plants. Identify the correct name.
(A) Dioscorea (B) Ginseng (C) Liquorice (D) Thevetia
Q.49 One of the followings is NOT required for the initiation and maintenance of plant tissue culture. Identify that.
(A) Sucrose (B) Kinetin (C) Auxin (D) Absicic acid
Q.50 Study the relationship between the given two statements:
[P] : Capsanthin is a red coloured principle from Capscicum annum
[Q]: Capsanthin is a vanillylamide of isodecenoic acid Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are correct (B) Both P and Q are incorrect
(C) P is correct but Q is incorrect (D) P is incorrect but Q is correct
Q.51 For the equation PV = nRT to hold true for a gas, all of the following conditions are necessary EXCEPT for ONE. Identify that.
(A) The molecules of gas must be of negligible volume
(B) Collisions between molecules must be perfectly elastic
(C) The velocities of all molecules must be equal
(D) The gas must not be decomposing
Q.52 Atracurium besylate, a neuromuscular blocking agent, is metabolized through one of the following reactions. Identify that.
(A) Hoffman elimination (B) Hoffman rearrangement
(C) Michael addition (D) Claisen condensation
Q.53 Identify the metabolite of prontosil responsible for its antibacterial activity.
(A) Sulphacetamide (B) Sulphanilamide
(C) p-Amino benzoic acid (D) Probenecid
Q.54 The central bicyclic ring in penicillin is named as one of the followings. Find the correct name.
(A) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[3.2.1]heptane
(B) 4-Thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane
(C) 4-Thia-l-azabicyclo[3.2]heptane
(D) 1-Thia-4-azabicyclo[1.2.3]heptane
Q.55 Both of the CMR and PMR spectra of an unknown compound show four absorption peaks each. Identify the unknown compound.
Q.56 Out of the four given compounds choose the one which is aromatic?
FiGURE
Q.57 Quantification of minute quantity of a drug from a complex matrix, without prior separation can be done using one of the following techniques. Identify that.
(A) Coulometry (B) Potentiometry
(C) Fluorescence spectroscopy (D) Radioimmunoassay
Q.58 Which one of the following fragmentation pathways involves a double bond and a y- hydrogen in mass spectrometry?
(A) a-Fission (B) p1- Fission
(C) Mc-Lafferty rearrangement (D) Retro-Diel's Alder rearrangement
Q.59 Read the following statements carefully about non-aqueous titrations:
[P] : Acetate ion is the strongest base capable of existence in acetic acid.
[Qj: Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a
differentiating solvent for the bases.
[R] : Acetic acid acts as a leveling solvent for various acids like perchloric and
hydrochloric acids.
[S] : Mixtures of bases of different strengths can be analyzed by selecting a leveling solvent for the bases.
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P and Q are true and R and S are false
(B) P and S are true and R and Q are false
(C) R and Q are true and P and S are false
(D) R and S are true and P and Q are false
Q.60 Read the following statements carefully about Volhard's method:
[P] : In Volhard's titration, silver ions are titrated with thiocyanates in acidic solution
[Q]: Ferric ions act as indicator in Volhard's method, yielding reddish brown ferric thiocyanate
[R] : Volhard's method is used to determine halides
[S] : Volhard's method is a direct titration
Choose the correct set of answers.
(A) P, Q and R are true and S is false
(B) Q, R and S are true and P is false
(C) R. S and P true and Q is false
(D) P, Q, R and S all are true
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Q.61 Identify the group of enzymes that utilizes NADP or NAD as coenzymes and catalyzes biochemical reactions by the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another.
(A) Isomerases
(B) Oxidoreductases
(C) Transferases
(D) Ligases
Q.62 Glucose is the only source of energy for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A) Cardiac cells (B) Nephrons
(C) RBCs (D) Thrombocytes
Q.63 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : Halogens are unusual in their effect on electrophilic aromatic substitution; they are deactivating yet ortho-, para - directing.
Reason [r] : In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, reactivity is controlled by stronger inductive effect while orientation is controlled by the stronger hyperconjugation effect.
Choose the correct statement.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
Q.64 Given are the four statements about dehydration of alcohols to give alkenes:
[P] : Ease of dehydration of alcohols takes place in the order 3°> 2°>1°
[Q]: Dehydration is acid catalyzed.
[R]: Orientation of the alkene formed is strongly Saytzeff.
[S] : Dehydration is irreversible.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P and Q are correct while R and S are not
(B) P, Q and R all three are correct but S is not
(C) P, Q, R and S all are correct
(D) P, Q and S all three are correct but R is not
Q.65 Choose the correct statement regarding the synthesis of phenyl n-propyl ether.
(A) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared from n-propyl bromide and sodium phenoxide
(B) Phenyl n-propyl ether is prepared from bromobenzene and sodium n-propoxide
(C) Phenyl n-propyl ether can be prepared by either of the two methods
(D) Both (A) and (B) are not the correct methods for the synthesis of phenyl n-propyl ether
Q.66 Read the following statements about SN1 reactions:
[P] : They proceed with complete inversion (Walden inversion).
[Q] : They proceed with racemization plus some net inversion."
[R] : They are characterized by rearrangements.
[S] : They are characterized by the reactivity sequence, CH3>1°>2°>3° Choose the correct combination?
(A) P and Q are true while R and S are false
(B) P and R are true while S and Q are false
(C) Q and R are true while P and S are false
(D) R and S are true while P and Q are false
Q.67 Read the following statements carefully:
[P] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions much faster than benzene
[Q] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo Diels Alder addition reaction very fast
[R] : Pyrrole and thiophene undergo nucleophilic aromatic substitution reaction faster than benzene
[S] : Pyrrole is a pie excessive system while thiophene is a pie deficient system
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Q only is true while P, R and S are false
(B) R and S are true while P and Q are false
(C) P and R are true while Q and S are false
(D) P only is true while Q, R and S are false
Q.68 Among the followings which one is not only a non-reducing sugar but also does not exhibit mutarotation?
(A) Glucose (B) Maltose (C) Lactose (D) Sucrose
Q.69 Choose the most basic heterocyclic compound among the followings.
(A) Pyridine (B) Imidazole (C) Pyrrole (D) Pyrrolidine
Q.70 Followings are some drug derivatives used to increase/decrease the water solubility of the parent drugs:
[P] : Rolitetracycline
[Q] : Erythromycin lactobionate
[R] : Chloramphenicol succinate
[S] : Erythromycin stearate
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) Q and R are used to increase water solubility while P and S are used to decrease it
(B) P, Q and R are used to increase water solubility while S is used to decrease it
(C) Q, S and R are used to increase water solubility while P is used to decrease it
(D) Q and S are used to increase water solubility while P and Q are used to decrease it
Q.71. Study the following statements on prevention of crystalluria. By the given approaches crystalluria can be prevented:
[P] : By co-administration of sulfadiazine, sulfamerazine and sulfamethazine
[Q] : By increasing the pH of urine
[R] : By co-administration of sulphanilamide, sulphamethoxazole and folic acid
[S] : By administration of co-trimoxazole
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P and Q are correct (B) R and S are correct
(C) P and R are correct (D) Q and R are correct
Q.72 Progesterone is obtained from diosgenin through the following sequence of chemical reactions:
[P] : Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis and Oppenauer oxidation
[Q] : Oppenauer oxidation, Acetylation, Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, H2/Pd and Hydrolysis
[R] : Cr03 (oxidation), Acetolysis, Acetylation, Oppenauer oxidation, Hydrolysis and H2/Pd
[S] : Acetylation, H2/Pd, Hydrolysis, Cr03 (oxidation), Oppenauer oxidation and Acetolysis
Choose the correct sequence of reactions.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Q. 73 Following statements are given for local anaesthetic drug lidocaine:
[P] : It contains a xylidine moiety.
[Q] : It can be used as antiarrhythmic agent on oral administration. [R] : When administered along with adrenaline its toxicity is reduced and its effect is prolonged.
[S] : Chemically it is 2-diethylamino-2',6'-dimethylphenyl acetamide Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q and S (B) P, Q and R (C) P, R and S (D) Q, R and S
Q. 74 One of the following ring systems can be used as the bioisosteric replacement for benzene ring in drug design:
IP]: Thiophene [Q]: Cyclohexa-l,3-diene
[R]: Pyrrolidine [S} : Imidazoline
Identify the correct answer.
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Q.75 Some of the following statements describe the properties of Dropping Mercury Electrode (DME) correctly:
[P] Constant renewal of electrode surface eliminates poisoning effects.
[Q] Mercury makes many metal ions easily reducible.
[R] Mercury has large hydrogen over-voltage.
[S] The electrode can get oxidised with ease.
Identify the correct combination.
(A) All statements P, Q, R and S are correct
(B) Statements P. Q and R only are correct
(C) Statements P, R and S only are correct
(D) Statements P, Q and S only are correct
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