1. Assume that for digoxin, the therapeutic range is cited as Cavg 5.5 = 0.8 - 2 mg/ml. If the patient is assumed to have an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 hours, how long would you wait to take serum digoxin concentration measurement and when during the dosing interval would you schedule it?
(a) 28 days then 3-4 hours after the dose is administered
(b) 14 days then 6-8 hours after the dose is administered
(c) 7 days then 10-14 hours after the dose is administered
(d) 3 days then 1-2 hours after the dose is administered
Correct Answer : (b) 14 days then 6-8 hours after the dose is administered
2. Which drug is used to prevent embolism in lungs and also during myocardial infarction?
(a) Human growth hormone
(b) Alteplase
(c) Epogen (EPO)
(d) Granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
Correct Answer : (b) Alteplase
3. Which enzyme is used by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to form deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the host cell?
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA-directed polymerase only
(c) Reverse transcriptase only
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer : (c) Reverse transcriptase only
4. For two drug products, generic and brand, to be considered bio-equivalent, the 90% confidence intervals about the ratio of the means of the Cmax and AUC values for generic/brand product must be within
(a) 80%-120% of the brand product
(b) 80%-100% of the brand product
(c) 80%-85% of the brand product
(d) 80%-90% of the brand product
Correct Answer : (c) 80%-85% of the brand product
5. The renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of
(a) Effective renal blood flow
(b) Active renal secretion
(c) Glomerular filtration rate
(d) Intrinsic enzyme activity
Correct Answer : (c) Glomerular filtration rate
6. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
(a) Increases in the particle size of the drug (b) Use of the ionized or salt form of the drug
(c) Decreases in the surface area of the drug (d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug
Correct Answer : (b) Use of the ionized or salt form of the drug
7. The amount of nitroglycerine that a transdermal patch delivers within a 24- hour period will not depend on (a) Occlusive backing on the patch
(b) Diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
(c) Surface area of the patch
(d) Dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
Correct Answer : (a) Occlusive backing on the patch
8. A very fine powdered chemical/drug is defined as one that
(a) Completely passes through a sieve #240
(b) Completely passes through a sieve #120
(c) Completely passes through a sieve #60
(d) Passes through a sieve #60 and not more than 40% through a sieve #120
Correct Answer : (d) Passes through a sieve #60 and not more than 40% through a sieve #120
9. Which equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature? https://www.pyqonline.com
(a) The stokes equation
(b) The Arrhenius equation
(c) The mickaels-menten equation
(d) The Hixson-Crowell equation
Correct Answer : (b) The Arrhenius equation
10. In 25 ml of a solution for injection, there are 4 mg of the drug. If the dose to be administered to a patient is 20 fig, what quantity of this solution should be used?
(a) 1.25 ml (b) 0.125 ml (c) 12 ml (d) 1.2 ml
Correct Answer : (a) 1.25 ml
11. The rate of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacologic effect is
(a) Per oral administration
(b) Intradermal injection
(c) Intravenous injection
(d) Subcutaneous injection
Correct Answer : (c) Intravenous injection
12. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
(a) Soft gelatin capsules
(b) Compressed tablets
(c) Hard gelatin capsules
(d) Modified release drug products
Correct Answer : (d) Modified release drug products
13. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the
(a) Particle size and surface area of the drug
(b) Noyes-Whitney equation for the drug
(c) Polymorphic form of the drug
(d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug
Correct Answer : (d) pH of the media and pKa of the drug
14. The characteristic of an active transport process includes all of the following except
(a) Active transport moves drug molecules against concentration gradient
(b) Active transport follows kick's law of diffusion
(c) Active transport requires energy
(d) Active transport of drug molecules may be saturated at high drug concentration
Correct Answer : (b) Active transport follows kick's law of diffusion
15. In order to determine the absolute bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended-release tablet, the bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the drug from
(a) An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of the active ingredient
(b) A reference (brand) extended-release that is a pharmaceutical equivalent
(c) Aparentral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion
(d) An oral solution of the drug in the same dose
Correct Answer : (a) An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of the active ingredient
16. A single dose four-way crossover fasting, comparative bioavailability study was performed in 24 healthy, adult male subjects. Plasma drug concentration was obtained for each subject and the following result was obtained :
The relative bioavailability of the drug from the capsule compared to the reference tablet is:
(a) 82.3%
(b) 91.7%
(c) 96.2%
(d) 103.9%
Correct Answer : (d) 103.9%
17. How many grams of aspirin should be used to prepare 1.250 kg of the given powder?
Powder formula: ASA - 6 parts Phenacetin - 3 parts Caffeine - 1 part
(a) 125
(b) 750
(c) 186
(d) 366
Correct Answer : (b) 750
18. Which technique is typically used to mill Camphor?
(a) Levigation
(b) Pulverization by Intervention
(c) Geometric Dilution
(d) Attrition
Correct Answer : (a) Levigation
19. Content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure which quality?
(a) Bioequivalency
(b) Potency
(c) Purity
(d) Toxicity
Correct Answer : (b) Potency
20. The route of drug administration that provides complete (100%) bioavailability is
(a) Intramuscular Injection
(b) Intravenous Injection
(c) Intrademal Injection
(d) Subcutaneous Injection
Correct Answer : (b) Intravenous Injection
21. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as
(a) Controlled release product
(b) Hard gelatin capsule
(c) Solution
(d) Compressed tablet
Correct Answer : (c) Solution
22. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be minimized by which of the following?
1. Adding Sodium Benzoate
2. Increasing the viscosity of the suspension
3. Reducing the particle size of the active ingredient
4. Adding a suspending agent
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : (b) 2, 3, and 4
23. Which one among the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Vaccines stimulate active immunity
(b) Vaccines are used for long-term prophylaxis
(c) Patients receive antibodies in active immunization
(d) Patients produce antibodies in active immunization
Correct Answer : (c) Patients receive antibodies in active immunization
24. Which one of the following is NOT correct?
(a) Vaccines are antigen-containing preparations
(b) Toxoid are bacterial toxins modified to destroy or reduce their toxicity
(c) Antibody-containing preparations are known as Anti Sera
(d) Vaccines are used for passive immunization
Correct Answer : (d) Vaccines are used for passive immunization
25. Class 100 clean room is defined as a room in which the particle count in the air is
(a) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 nm and larger in size
(b) Not more than 120 per cubic foot of 0.5 nm and larger in size
(c) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 nm and larger in size
(d) Not more than 99 per cubic foot of 0.5 nm in size
Correct Answer : (a) Not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 nm and larger in size
26. Which of the following is NOT used as enteric coating material?
(a) Cellulose acetate phthalate
(b) Pectin
(c) Acrylae Polymers
(d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate Correct Answer : (b) Pectin
27. Which of the following cannot be used for buffering of injections?
(a) Phosphate buffers
(b) Citrate buffers
(c) Borate buffers
(d) Acetate buffers
28. Which one of the following chemical/pharmacological classes of agents is incorrectly matched with its nature?
(a) Adrenergic agonist: Basic
(b) Prostaglandin: Acidic
(c) 4-Quinolone: Basic
(d) Meglitinides: Acidic
Correct Answer : (c) 4-Quinolone: Basic
29. Which one of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?
(a) Aspirin (pKa =3.5)
(b) Indomethacin (pKa = 4.5)
(c) Ibuprofen (pKa = 5.2)
(d) Phenobarbital (pKa = 7.4)
Correct Answer : (a) Aspirin (pKa =3.5)
30. All of the following statements about first-order degradation are true, except
(a) Its rate is dependent on the concentration
(b) Its half-life is a changing parameter
(c) A plot of the log of concentration versus time yields a straight line
(d) Its t90% is independent of the concentration
Correct Answer : (b) Its half-life is a changing parameter
31. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as
(a) A water-soluble base
(b) An oleaginous base
(c) An absorptive base
(d) An emulsion base
Correct Answer : (d) An emulsion base
32. Rofecoxib
(a) Has a similar effect to diclofenac
(b) Provides protection against ischemic cardiovascular events
(c) Is indicated for long-term use in osteoarthritis
(d) Can be given to patients with active peptic ulceration
Correct Answer : (a) Has a similar effect to diclofenac
33. Schedule 'R' of Drugs and Cosmetics Act would apply to
(a) Requirements of factory premises and hygienic conditions for Ayurvedic (including Siddha) drugs
(b) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
(c) Standards for medical devices
(d) None of these
Correct Answer : (b) Standards for mechanical contraceptives
34. An alcoholic solution contains 57.77% u/v alcohol. The strength will be labeled as
(a) Over proof
(b) Under proof
(c) Proof spirit
(d) Proof gallons
Correct Answer : (b) Under proof
35. Probenecid increases serum levels and prolongs the activity of penicillin derivatives by
(a) Plasma protein binding
(b) Blocking their glomerular filtration
(c) Blocking their tubular secretion
(d) Blocking their reabsorption
Correct Answer : (c) Blocking their tubular secretion
36. In the preparation of calamine lotion, sodium citrate is used as
(a) Suspending agent
(b) Solubilizer
(c) Buffering agent
(d) Bacteriostatic
Correct Answer : (c) Buffering agent
37. Water which is free from volatile and non-volatile impurities, microorganisms, and pyrogens is called
(a) Purified Water IP
(b) Water for Injection IP
(c) Sterile Water for Injection IP
(d) Potable Water
Correct Answer : (b) Water for Injection IP
38. A new drug has completed phase-I clinical trials in the USA. The pharmaceutical company wants to do a Multinational, multinational trial including in India. The firm will apply in India to conduct
(a) Phase-I trial
(b) Phase-II trial
(c) Pre-clinical trial
(d) Pharmacolimetric data trial Correct Answer : (b) Phase-II trial
39. Match the following:
1. Schedule V - I. Particulars to be shown in the various records of manufacture of drugs
2. Schedule T - II. List of drugs which can be marketed under generic names only
3. Schedule U - III. The period of Drugs
4. Schedule W - IV. Standards of patent of proprietary medicines
5. Schedule F - V. Requirements of factory premises and conditions
for Ayurvedic and Unani drugs Which is the correct match?
(a) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-V, 5-II
(b) 1-V, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
(c) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
(d) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-II, 4-I, 5-III
Correct Answer : (c) 1-IV, 2-V, 3-I, 4-II, 5-III
40. 0.9% w/v sodium chloride has a freezing point depression of
(a) -0.50°C
(b) -0.52°C
(c) -0.56°C
(d) -0.58°C
Correct Answer : (b) -0.52°C
41. Subcoating is given to the tablets to
(a) Prevent dissolution in acidic medium
(b) Round the edges and build up the tablet size
(c) Prevent moisture penetration into the tablet
(d) Avoid deterioration due to microbial attack
Correct Answer : (b) Round the edges and build up the tablet size
42. Which one among the following is observed in first-order kinetics?
(a) Clearance is constant
(b) Dose-dependent elimination occurs
(c) Rate of elimination decreases with increases in plasma concentration
(d) Rate of elimination does not depend on plasma concentration
Correct Answer : (c) Rate of elimination decreases with increases in plasma concentration
43. Which one of the following drugs is NOT metabolized by the liver?
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Penicillin-G
(d) Cefotaxime
Correct Answer : (c) Penicillin-G
44. Which one among the following is NOT an oral third-generation cephalosporin?
(a) Cefditoren
(b) Cefdinir
(c) Cefaclor
(d) Ceftibuten
Correct Answer : (d) Ceftibuten
45. Which one among the following statements regarding Placebo is correct?
(a) Placebo does not produce any effect
(b) Placebo is a dummy medication
(c) All patients respond to placebo
(d) Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets
Correct Answer : (b) Placebo is a dummy medication
46. Pharmacovigilance is used to monitor
(a) Unauthorized drug manufacturing
(b) Drug toxicity
(c) Pharmacokinetics
(d) Cost of drugs and pharmaceuticals
Correct Answer : (b) Drug toxicity
47. Clonidine is
(a) Alpha-one selective agonist
(b) Alpha-two selective agonist
(c) Alpha-one selective antagonist
(d) Alpha-two selective antagonist
Correct Answer : (b) Alpha-two selective agonist
48. Mala-N contains
(a) Ethinyl Estradiol
(b) Norethisterone
(c) D-norgestrel
(d) Norepinephrine
Correct Answer : (a) Ethinyl Estradiol
49. Prolonged use of steroids may cause
(a) Hypoglycemia
(b) Hypotension
(c) Decrease in bone matrix protein
(d) Early healing of wound
Correct Answer : (c) Decrease in bone matrix protein
50. Anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids is due to blocking of
(a) Prostaglandin synthase
(b) Thromboxane synthase
(c) 15-lipoxygenase
(d) Breakdown of phospholipids
Correct Answer : (a) Prostaglandin synthase
51. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification in India is
(a) Mandatory for all pharmaceutical industries
(b) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of biologicals
(c) Compulsory for industries which involve in manufacturing of non- biologicals
(d) Optional for pharmaceutical industries
Correct Answer : (d) Optional for pharmaceutical industries
52. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) certification is issued in India by
(a) Controller, Weights and Measures, Government of India
(b) Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS), Government of India
(c) Department of Science and Technology, Government of India
(d) Drug Controller General of India (DCGI), Government of India
Correct Answer : (d) Drug Controller General of India (DCGI), Government of India
53. Which one of the following is a second-generation H1-Anti-histamine?
(a) Cetirizine
(b) Cinnarizine
(c) Pheneramine
(d) Promethazine
Correct Answer : (a) Cetirizine
54. Prostaglandins have effects on a variety of tissues in the human body. The different Prostaglandins may have different effects. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) PGE2 is a bronchodilator, whereas PGF2 alpha is a bronchoconstrictor
(b) PGE2 has marked oxytocic action, while PGF2 alpha has tocolytic action
(c) PGE2 and PG2 inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 facilitates aggregation
(d) The human arteriolar smooth muscle is relaxed by PGE2 and PGI2, whereas TXA2 and PGF2 alpha cause vasoconstriction
Correct Answer : (c) PGE2 and PG2 inhibit platelet aggregation, whereas TXA2 facilitates aggregation
55. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding NSAIDs?
(a) They cause release of histamine
(b) They cause relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
(c) They indirectly increase leukotriene production
(d) They cause airway irritation
Correct Answer : (c) They indirectly increase leukotriene production
56. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Rate of killing of bacteria by antibiotics follows the first-order kinetics
(b) The bactericidal effects of Penicillin depend upon its attained C max
(c) The antibiotics having time-dependent bactericidal effects are given in a large single dose rather than multiple daily doses
(d) Aminoglycosides produce bactericidal effects in a concentration- dependent manner
Correct Answer : (b) The bactericidal effects of Penicillin depend upon its attained C max
57. Which of the following is NOT a correct combination of drug and its important adverse effect?
(a) Rifampicin: Hepatotoxicity
(b) Isohiazid: Peripheral neuropathy
(c) Ethambutol: Increased uric acid
(d) Streptomycin: Ototoxicity
Correct Answer : (c) Ethambutol: Increased uric acid
58. Chemotherapeutic agent, which does NOT inhibit the microtubule formation is
(a) Paclitaxel
(b) Colchicine
(c) Vincristine
(d) Vinblastine
Correct Answer : (a) Paclitaxel
59. Following antibiotics have been correctly paired to their mechanism of action, except
(a) Vancomycin - Inhibits synthesis of phospholipids and peptidoglycan polymerization
(b) Tetracycline - Binds to 30s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
(c) Erythromycin - Binds to bacterial 70s ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
(d) Ciprofloxacin - Interferes with the action of bacterial topoisomerase II
Correct Answer : (a) Vancomycin - Inhibits synthesis of phospholipids and peptidoglycan polymerization
60. The pharmacokinetics half-life of which one of the following resembles its pharmacodynamic half-life?
(a) Morphine
(b) Tefenadine
(c) Isoprenaline
(d) Suxamethonium
Correct Answer : (a) Morphine
61. The following properties of a drug encourage its accumulation in breast milk, except
(a) High lipid solubility
(b) Unionized state
(c) Low molecular weight
(d) Weak acid
Correct Answer : (d) Weak acid
62. As per the schedule 'Y' of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, the animal toxicity study requirement for marketing of a drug depends on the tentative route and duration of administration in humans. In this context, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Single dose human use - animal toxicity for 2 weeks in 2 species
(b) Oral use for 2 weeks in human - animal toxicity for 4 weeks in 2 species
(c) Aerosol use by repeated use in humans - animal toxicity in 2 species for 21 weeks
(d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration irritation test in 1 species for 3 weeks
Correct Answer : (d) Multiple daily ocular application for short duration irritation test in 1 species for 3 weeks
63. In one of the clinical trials of a vaccine, there were 6 deaths reported by the media. "You have been deputed by authority to investigate the causality of the incidence." Inspection of the following documents will be helpful except
(a) Source data
(b) Standard operating procedures
(c) Data safety monitoring records
(d) Informed consent forms
Correct Answer : (c) Data safety monitoring records
64. Which one among the following is an antimalarial drug having a metabolite with triazine moiety?
(a) Quinine
(b) Proguanil
(c) Pyrimethamine
(d) Primaquine
Correct Answer : (b) Proguanil
65. Which one among the following is an antitubercular drug with hydrazine moiety?
(a) Ethionamide
(b) Isoniazid
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) Thiacetazone
Correct Answer : (b) Isoniazid
66. Codeine differs from morphine structurally in
(a) Methaylation of phenolic hydroxyl group
(b) Methaylation of alcoholic group
(c) Methaylation of nitrogen group
(d) Oxidation of phenolic hydroxyl group
Correct Answer : (a) Methaylation of phenolic hydroxyl group
67. Tropane system is a fusion of
(a) Pyrrolidine and piperidine
(b) Pyrrolidine and pyrimidine
(c) Ferrole and pyrazine
(d) Thiophene and piperidine
Correct Answer : (a) Pyrrolidine and piperidine
68. The local anesthetics exert their action by blocking which of the following types of ion channels?
(a) Ligand-gated sodium channel
(b) Voltage-gated sodium channel
(c) Ligand-gated calcium channel
(d) Voltage-gated calcium channel
Correct Answer : (b) Voltage-gated sodium channel
69. Which one of the following statements with regard to the SAARC summit held in Bhutan in April 200 is NOT correct?
(a) The summit was held in Bhutan for the first time
(b) It was the silver jubilee summit of SAARC
(c) The summit recommended to declare 2010-2020 as the "Decade of intra-regional connectivity in SAARC"
(d) The summit-central theme was Cross border terrorism
Correct Answer : (d) The summit-central theme was Cross border terrorism
70. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to Education Act, 2010 is NOT correct?
(a) All children in the 6-14 year age group must get free and compulsory education
(b) No children shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination till Class VIII
(c) There must be 25% reservation for poor children even in private schools
(d) Gram Panchayats and Municipal Councils are responsible to look into violations of Right to Education laws
Correct Answer : (c) There must be 25% reservation for poor children even in private schools
71. The next three items are based on the following passage:
The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers, which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are the saprotrophs that secrete digestive enzymes to break down the dead and waste matter into simple inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them. The DFC may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels-some of the organisms of the DFC are prey to the grazing food chain animals. Some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores. These interconnections create a food web.
Organisms occupy a place in their natural surroundings according to their feeding relationship with others. The source of their nutrition dictates their tropic level. Autotrophs belong to the first tropic level and, in turn, feed the next tropic level of herbivores. Primary and secondary carnivores constitute the third and fourth levels. Only about 10% of energy gets transferred from the lower to the next higher trophic level, which eventually restricts the number of levels in a food chain.
Which trophic level in the grazing food chain do lions belong to?
(a) Trophic level 1
(b) Trophic level 2
(c) Trophic level 3
(d) Trophic level 4
Correct Answer : (c) Trophic level 3
72. The number of tropic levels in a grazing food chain is restricted because
(a) The higher levels like the restrict their number to improve availability
(b) There is a loss of availability of food from consumption in the lower levels
(c) There is an incremental number of organisms in the next higher level
(d) Sequential transfer leads to a loss of energy
Correct Answer : (d) Sequential transfer leads to a loss of energy
73. The tropic level of a given species depends on it
(a) Functionality
(b) Strength
(c) Number
(d) Size
Correct Answer : (d) Size
74. The President of India has the power to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where the sentence
(a) Is given by court martial
(b) Of death has been awarded
(c) Is for an offence relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends
(d) Is for an offence relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends
Correct Answer : (b) Of death has been awarded
75. Who among the following won the Australian Open Tennis Cup (Men's Singles) 2011?
(a) Andy Murray
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Rafael Nadal
(d) Roger Federer
Correct Answer : (c) Rafael Nadal
76. The next three items are based on the following passage:
Before performing an operation in the hospital, a doctor administers a drug or a gas to make the patient uncascious of pain. This stateof unconsciousness is known as 'Anaesthesia from greek word meaning 'loss of leeling'. The substare causing loss of feeling is called an anaesthetic. The discovery of anasthetic in the 19th century was one of the greatest achievement in the field of medicine. Before anasthetics, operations weredone in very rare cases. Patients needing surgery were given alcohol or various drugs extracted from plant juices to reduce the pain. Even then, operations were always very painful and were undertaken only in extreme emergency. Today, with anaesthetics, it is possible to produce many hours of pain free unconsciousness and this enables surgeons to perform complex life saving operations:
Before performing an operation, how does a doctor lessen the pain of the patient?
(a) Gives alcohol
(b) Gives a drug or gas to make the patient unconscious
(c) Gives juice extract of plants
(d) Uses extreme methods to dull the pain
Correct Answer : (b) Gives a drug or gas to make the patient unconscious
77. Before the 19th century, operations were done in very rare cases because
(a) Patients could not be given anything except alcohol to lessen pain
(b) There was an absence of one of the greatest achievements in the field of science and medicine
(c) Anesthetics were discovered only in the 19th century
(d) Drugs extracted from plant juice could not dull pain sufficiently
Correct Answer : (d) Drugs extracted from plant juice could not dull pain sufficiently
78. Today, surgeons can perform complex life-saving operations due to
(a) There being emergency facilities
(b) The fact that patients can be kept pain-free for many hours with anesthetics
(c) Powerful plant extracts available today
(d) The fact that operations are done in rare cases
Correct Answer : (b) The fact that patients can be kept pain-free for many hours with anesthetics
79. The Chairman of the Investigational New Drug (IND) Committee in India is
(a) Drugs Controller General of India, Government of India
(b) Secretary, Department of Health Research, Government of India
(c) Directorate General of Health Sciences, Government of India
(d) Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, Government of India Correct Answer : (a) Drugs Controller General of India, Government of India
80. In India, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendation of
(a) Indian Council of Medical Research
(b) Pharmacy Council of India
(c) Drug Technical Advisory Board
(d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory Board Correct Answer : (c) Drug Technical Advisory Board
81. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect which substance?
(a) Luteinizing Hormone
(b) Progesterone
(c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
(d) Estrogen
Correct Answer : (c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
82. Which one among the following is neither an input nor output device?
(a) CD-ROM
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Hard disk
(d) Pen drive
Correct Answer : (c) Hard disk
83. Which among the following is/are units of RAM?
1. Gigabyte and Megabyte
2. RPM
2. GBPS and MBPS
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (d) 1 only
84. If you mix four parts of 40% alcohol with 1 part of 90% alcohol, you will get
(a) 45.7% alcohol
(b) 40% alcohol
(c) 50% alcohol
(d) 57% alcohol
Correct Answer : (c) 50% alcohol
85. The loading dose (D) of a drug is usually based on the
(a) Total body clearance of the drug
(b) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine
(c) Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) and desired-drug concentration in plasma
(d) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC)
Correct Answer : (c) Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) and desired-drug concentration in plasma
86. The activity of which one of the following drugs is dependent on a p- phenyl-N-alkylpiperidine moiety?
(a) Phenobarbital
(b) Chlorpromazine
(c) Imipramine
(d) Meperidine
Correct Answer : (d) Meperidine
87. Flurazepam has a pKa of 8.2. What percentage of flurazepam will be ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?
(a) 0.1%
(b) 1%
(c) 99%
(d) 99.9%
Correct Answer : (d) 99.9%
88. Recrudescence of malaria refers to the
(a) Re-infection of a patient by a mosquito bite
(b) Re-infection by exoerythrocytic hypozoites
(c) Incomplete clearance of sporozoites from blood
(d) Incomplete clearance of schizonts from blood Correct Answer : (c) Incomplete clearance of sporozoites from blood
89. Which one of the following drugs should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Dopamine
(c) Cisplatin
(d) Nitroglycerine
Correct Answer : (d) Nitroglycerine
90. Prostaglandin plays a major role in the biological activity of proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole and esomeprazole. The protonation takes place on the
(a) Aromatic methyl chain
(b) Bemzimidazole ring
(c) Methoxy side chain
(d) The ring that has dimethyl groups
Correct Answer : (b) Bemzimidazole ring
91. The carboxyl group aspirin after esterification with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol gives
(a) 3-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
(b) 4-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicyate
(c) 0-(2-hydroxybenzoyl) salicylic acid
(d) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylaye
Correct Answer : (b) 4-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicyate
92. A prescription order calls for 500 ml of 2.0% aminosyn, but the pharmacy has 8.0% solution in stock. How much of the aminosyn 8.0% solution is required to prepare 500 ml of the above solution?
(a) 120 ml
(b) 147 ml
(c) 125 ml
(d) 250 ml
Correct Answer : (c) 125 ml
93. Which of the following is/are the symptoms of venous thrombosis?
1. Oedema
2. Lower leg becoming bluish in color
3. Dry skin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (b) 1 and 2 only
94. Interferon beta:
1. Can be administered orally.
2. May cause myalgia.
3. Is used in multiple sclerosis.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (c) 2 and 3 only
95. Which of the following is/are the side effects associated with testosterone?
1. Headache
2. Hirsutism
3. Gynaecomastia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (b) 1 and 2 only
96. Rosiglitazone:
1. Should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease.
2. Should not be used with glicazide.
3. is a biguanide.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (b) 1 and 2 only
97. Iron salts:
1. Should always be taken on an empty stomach.
2. Should be given by mouth unless there are good reasons for using another route.
3. In the form of ferric salts are better absorbed than ferrous salts.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (b) 1 and 2 only
98. Doxycycline:
1. Is bacteriostatic.
2. Is a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug.
3. May be administered in renal impairment.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (a) 1, 2, and 3
99. Testosterone may be used:
(a) To treat breast and endometrial cancer in females.
(b) To treat hypogonadism in males.
(c) To suppress postpartum breast enlargement.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Correct Answer : (c) 2 and 3 only
100. Following adverse effects are rightly paired with a causative anti-malarial drug except
(a) Lichenoid skin eruptions: Chloroquine
(b) Steven Johnson syndrome: Quinine
(c) Hallucinations: Mefloquine
(d) Prolongation of QT interval: Halofantrine Correct Answer : (c) Hallucinations: Mefloquine
