1. HIV/AIDS is diagnosed by some specific tests. Identify which among the following test/s is/are used ?
(1) ELISA
(2) DNA - PCR by amplification
(3) Western blot
(4) All the above
2. What is the antidote for Lead poisoning ?
(1) Dimercaptosuccinic acid (2) Physostigmine (3) Fomepizole (4) Atropine
3. Which of the following drugs is not a Tocolytic ?
(1) Ritoderine (2) Magnesium sulfate (3) Nifedipine (4) Ergotamine
4. Which of the following NSAIDs is not a propionic acid derivative ?
(1) Ibuprofen (2) Naproxen (3) Oxaprozin (4) Piroxicam
5. Which anticoagulant is produced by mast cells and basophils ?
(1) Heparin (2) Prostaglandin (3) Histidine (4) Vitamin K
6. Under which rule of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945, licenses for blood banks are issued ?
(1) 122 G (2) 122 A (3) 160 B (4) 150 B
7. Match the following :
(a) Thromboplastin (i) Factor VII
(b) Proconvertin (ii) Factor III
(c) Fibrinogen (iii) Factor II
(d) Prothrombin (iv) Factor I
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
8. Basophils originate in :
(1) Megakaryoblast
(2) Monoblast
(3) Megakaryocyte
(4) Myeloblast
9. Match the following anticancer drugs with their cell cycle effects :
(a) Cytarabine (ara-c) (i) G1- S phase
(b) Etoposide (ii) M phase
(c) Vincristine (iii) G2 - M phase
(d) Bleomycin (iv) S phase
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
10. Which of the following is an ester and short-acting Local anaesthetic ?
(1) Tetracaine (2) Dibucaine (3) Lidocaine (4) Procaine
11. Antifungal Antibiotic Amphotericin B is obtained from :
(1) Streptomyces pimprina
(2) Penicillum griseofulvin
(3) Streptomyces nodosus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
12. Which of the following drugs is not an enzyme - inducer ?
(1) Phenobarbitone
(2) Phenytoin
(3) Rifampin
(4) Cimetidine
13. One of the following drugs is most widely used as local anaesthetic for infiltration, regional nerve block, epidural and subarachnoid anaesthesia. It is also commonly used for topical anaesthesia :
(1) Cocaine hydrochloride
(2) Procaine hydrochloride
(3) Lidpcaine hydrochloride
(4) Mepivacaine hydrochloride
14. Which of the folio wing antiretroviral drugs belongs to Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) category ?
(1) Nevirapine (2) Indinavir (3) Ritonavir (4) Stavudine
15. Which of the following drugs induces delta-amino-levulinic-acid (ALA)- synthetase ?
(1) Phenobarbitone
(2) Ethanol
(3) Paraldehyde
(4) Diazepam
16. Which of the following drugs is not a component of fixed-dose combination used in RNTCP for Tuberculosis ?
(1) Rifampicin (2) Moxifloxacin (3) Isoniazid (4) Ethambutol
17. Micro-organism responsible for sexually transmitted diseases which causes an eye infection that is the primary cause of blindness world wide :
(1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(2) Treponema pallidum
(3) Chlamydia trachomatis
(4) Candida albicans
18. On which chromosome, the genes for three chains of fibrinogen are found ?
(1) chromosome 1 (2) chromosome 3 (3) chromosome 4 (4) chromosome 6
19. Whole human blood is a mixture of blood and anticoagulant solution and contains not less than :
(1) 8.7% w/v of haemoglobin
(3) 9.07% w/v of haemoglobin
(2) 2.3% w/v of haemoglobin
(4) 9.7% w/v of haemoglobin
20. Match the following :
(a) Nor - adrenaline reuptake inhibitor (i) Fluoxetine
(b) Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (ii) Phenelzine
(c) Mono amine oxidase inhibitor (iii) Dextroamphetamine
(d) Psychomotor stimulant (iv) Amitriptyline
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
21. The relative nephrotoxicity among the Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is one of the following :
(1) Indomethacin < Fenoprofen < Ibuprofen
(2) Ibuprofen > Fenoprofen > Indomethacin
(3) Indomethacin > Fenoprofen > Ibuprofen
(4) Fenoprofen > Ibuprofen > Indomethacin
22. Which of the following antifungal drugs is used only topically ?
(1) Griseofulvin
(2) Clotrimazole
(3) Amphotericin - B
(4) Nystatin
23. What is accepted daily intake in mg/kg/day of Aldrin ?
(1) 0.005 (2) 0.008 (3) 0.0001 (4) 0.0005
24. Which of the following is Non-opioids Antitussive ?
(1) Codeine
(2) Ethylmorphine
(3) Dextromethorphan
(4) Pholcodine
25. Match the columns :
(a) Phenothiazines (i) Suppresses inositol signalling
(b) A typical Antipsychotic (ii) M - Receptor Blockade
(c) Biltyrophenone (iii) Blockade of 5 - HT2A receptors
(d) Lithium (iv) Blockade of D2 receptors
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
26. Which one of the following drugs is uterine relaxant ?
(1) Oxytocin (2) Ergonovine (3) Ritodrine (4) Quinine
27. The selective angiotensin II receptor blocker used as antihypertensive drug is one of the following :
(1) Captopril (2) Verapamil HC1 (3) Amiloride (4) Losartan
28. What is the consequence of interaction between 6-Mercaptopurine and Allopurinol ?
(1) Dose of 6-Mercaptopurine is reduced
(2) No effect
(3) Dose of 6-Mercaptopurine is increased
(4) Dose of Allopurinol is increased
29. For donors experiencing plasmapheresis, Aspirin should not have been taken
day(s) prior to donation.
(1) One (2) Three (3) Five (4) Seven
30. Which of the following oral contraceptive preparations contains an estrogen and a progestin in fixed doses for all the days of the treatment cycle ?
(1) Minipill (2) Emergency pill (3) Combined pill (4) Phased pill
31. During and after an attack of infectious mononucleosis an agglutinin for sheep red blood cells appears in the serum and is of diagnostic significance. This agglutinin is demonstrated in the .
(1) Rose - Waaler test
(2) Differential sheep cell agglutination test
(3) Paul - Bunnell test
(4) MG agglutination test
32. Media that enhance the growth of a particular type of bacterium and do not enhance and even may inhibit other types of organisms are called :
(1) Differential media
(2) Selective media
(3) Maintenance media
(4) Assay media
33. In the laboratory diagnosis of rabies impression smears of the brain are stained by Seller's technique to demonstrate the inclusion bodies called .
(1) Negri bodies
(2) Cowdry type A bodies
(3) Cowdry type B bodies
(4) Bollinger bodies
34. Lowbury and Lilly's medium, and Willis and Hobbs' medium are used for cultivation of
(1) Bordetella
(2) Clostridia
(3) Bacilli
(4) Corynebacteria
35. Alcohol in water (60 - 85%) is a good disinfectant for medical instruments and laboratory surfaces. It destroys the microorganisms present there by :
(1) solubilizing lipids and protein denaturation
(2) disrupting cell membrane
(3) combining with —SH groups
(4) acting as strong alkylating agent
36. pH indicator/dye present in Christensen's urea medium is
(1) neutral red
(2) andrade's indicator
(3) methyl red
(4) phenol red
37. Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) The LAL test reagent is obtained from a horse shoe crab.
(b) The LAL test is more sensitive than the pyrogen test.
(c) The LAL test only detects endotoxins of gram negative bacteria.
(d) The LAL test can be used for radiopharmaceuticals.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
38. The antimicrobial drug showing structural similarity to paraaminobenzoic acid and which is bacteriostatic is :
(a) Penicillin
(b) Rifamycin
(c) Isoniazid
(d) Sulfonamides
Which of the statement/ s given above is/are correct ?
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (d) only
39. Match the following :
Bioassay test organisms Vitamins
(a) Lactobacillus casei (i) Cyanocobalamin
(b) Lactobacillus leichmanii (ii) Inositol
(c) Lactobacillus arabinosus (iii) Biotin
(d) Saccharomyces uvarum (iv) Calcium pantothenate
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
40. The pyrogen test is designated to limit the risk of a febrile reaction following parenteral administration of drugs. It is intended to be used for liquid products that can be tolerated by the test in a dose of 10 mL per kg, injected intravenously.
(1) rabbit (2) white mice (3) guinea pig (4) hamster
41. Collodion filters are used for the isolation of
(1) Bacteria (2) Algae (3) Moulds (4) Viruses
42. Diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori can be done bv
(1) Urea breath test (2) Copper breath test (3) Sodium breath test (4) Potassium breath test
43. Which of the following is used to serodiagnose syphilis ?
(1) Veneral Disease Research Laboratory test
(2) Widal test
(3) Sereny test
(4) E test
44. Typical BOD values for domestic waste water, including sewage are approximately units.
(1) 200 BOD (2) 100 BOD (3) 500 BOD (4) 300 BOD
45. The major causes of common cold are :
(1) Influenza viruses (2) Adenoviruses
(3) Rhinoviruses (4) None of the above
46. Which of the following statement/'s about antibiotics is/are incorrect ?
(a) Oral activity can be conferred on cephalosporins by esterification of the 3 - carboxylic acid group.
(b) Acylureidopenicillins are stable under acidic conditions.
(c) Aminoglycosides have a highly substituted 1, 3 - diamino cyclohexane central ring.
(d) The enolized tricarbonyl methane system at C1 to C3 in the tetracycline structure need not be intact for good activity.
Answer options :
(1) (c) only (2) (a) and (c).only
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) all of the above
47. Schedule M refers to .
(1) GMP and requirements of factory premises equipment for manufacture of drugs.
(2) Standard of surgical dressings.
(3) Life period of drugs.
(4) Standard of cosmetics.
48. Who is the Chairman of the Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) ?
(1) Drugs Controller of India
(2) The President - PCI
(3) The President - Medical Council of India
(4) Director - General of Health Services
49. Benzalkonium chloride which is used as Antimicrobial preservative can be used in what concentration ?
(1) 0.002 - 0.02% (2) 0.1% (3) 15% (4) 30%
50. Practical application of recombinant DNA technology is in the production of :
(a) Interferon (b) Insulin
(c) Growth Hormone (d) Phospholipid
Which of the above options are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
51. Which of the following statement/s about Tautomerism is/are correct ?
(a) Shifting of carbon atom from one hydrogen to an other to produce enantiomen is called tautomerism.
(b) Sugar with anomeric carbon undergoes tautomerism in acidic solution.
(c) Sugar with anomeric carbon undergoes tautomerism in alkaline solution.
(d) Shifting of 'H' atom from one carbon to another to produce enediols is called tautomerism.
Answer options :
(1) only (a) (2) only (b) and (d)
(3) only (a) and (d) (4) only (c) and (d)
52. The most naturally occurring monosaccharides in mammalian tissue are of which configuration ?
(1) D (2) L (3) L( + ) (4) L( —)
53. Physical properties of well formulated suspension and emulsion are :
(a) Product must remain sufficiently homogeneous.
• (b) The sediment or creaming produced on storage is easily suspended by moderate agitation.
(c) Any suspended particle should be small and uniform in size.
(d) The product needs to be thickened to reduce settling rate of particles.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
54. The concentration of phenyl ethyl alcohol as a preservative in ophthalmic suspensions is :
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.5% (3) 0.001% (4) 0.1%
55. Which of the following is water soluble coating material used in dosage form (solid) ?
(1) Gelatin (2) Poraffin (3) Shellac (4) Nylon
56. Ketone bodies is the term collectively called for :
(a) acetoacetate (b) 3 - hydroxy butyrate
(c) acetone (d) ketone Answer options :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
57. What are the factors affecting dosage form design ?
(a) common ion effect (b) pka
(c) crystallization (d) autoclaving
Answer options :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c) and (d) (4) all of the above
58. y - Aminobutyrate (GABA) is formed by decarboxylation of : (1) L - arginine (2) L - glutamate
(3) L - tyrosine (4) L - spermidine
59. Hemolytic anaemia can be caused by deficiency of following enzyme/s of pentose phosphate pathway :
(a) glucose -1 - phosphokinase
(b) 6 - phospho gluconate reductase
(c) glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase
(d) transketolase Answer options :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (d) only
(3) (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only
60. A drug shall be deemed to be spurious :
(a) If it is manufactured under the name which belongs to another drug.
(b) If it has been substituted wholly or partially by another drug or another substance.
(c) If it purports to be a product of manufacturer of whom it is not truly a product.
(d) If it contains any harmful or toxic substances which may render it injurious to health. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
61. Match the enteric coating polymers with their synonyms :
(a) Cellulose acetate phthalate (i) Sureteric
(b) Shellac (ii) Certiseal
(c) Polymethacrylate (iii) Aquacoat CPD
(d) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate (iv) Kollicoat MAE
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
62. Government Analyst is appointed by State and Central Governments under section 33 F
of the Act for medicine :
(a) Ayurvedic (b) Siddha
(c) Unani (d) Allopathic
Which of the options given above are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c),and (d)
63. Which of the following statements/s is/are correct with respect to membrane controlled sustained release formulations ?
(a) Release of the drug is by disintegration.
(b) A plasticizer is required to lower the glass transition temperature of the film.
(c) Fillers that compact by brittle fracture are suitable if used alone.
(d) Water soluble components are not necessary to increase the rate of release.
Answer options :
(1) only (c) (2) only (d) (3) only (b) (4) all of the above
64. With respect to suspensions the Stocks law of particles is related to which factor/s :
(a) Diameter of particle
(b) Density of particle and medium
(c) Viscosity of medium
(d) Sedimentation rate Answer options :
(1) only (a) (2) only (b) and (c)
(3) only (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
65. How many stereo isomers are possible for the compound :
CH3 - CH2 - CH(C1) - CH(Br) - CH3 ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
66. Which of the following is not an anionic surfactant ?
(1) Carboxylic acid
(2) Alkyl and alkyl-aryl sulfonate
(3) Ammonium carboxylate
(4) Substituted alkyl amide
67. The control test for gauging of surgical catgut is carried out at :
(1) RH 45 - 55% and temperature 30°C
(2) RH 45% and temperature 25°C
(3) Ambient temperature and humidity
(4) RH 60 - 80% and temperature 16 - 21°C
68. According to the schedule U the particulars shown of manufacturing records for substances other than parentral are :
(a) Serial No. (b) Name of product
(c) Lot/Batch size (d) Reference of Master Formula record
Which of the particulars given above are correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
69. Drug shall be deemed as misbranded :
(a) If it is not labelled in a prescribed manner.
(b) If it is coloured, coated, powdered or polished so that damage is concealed or made to appear of greater therapeutic value than it really is.
(c) If its label or container bears any statement, design or device which makes false claim for the drug.
(d) If it is prepared, stored or packed under insanitary condition.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
70. In continuous fermentation, steady state is achieved using principles of:
(1) thermostat (2) levelstat (3) pH stat (4) chemostat
71. The important disaccharides are :
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose (c) Lactose (d) Cellulose
Which of the above options are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
72. According to D and C Act 1940 and R.T. 1945 schedule M-II is meant for the manufacture of:
(1) Cosmetics (2) Medical devices
(3) Pharmaceutical products (4) Allied products
73. Which of the following statements relating to DNA vaccines is correct ?
(1) Pathogen gene itself is used as vaccine either naked or inserted
(2) Gene coding on immunological protein
(3) Polysaccharide vaccine
(4) Attenuated non-patho genic
74. Identify the incorrect statement/s for an adulterated drug :
(a) It purports to be the product of a manufacturer of whom it is truly not a product.
(b) It is not labelled in the prescribed manner.
(c) It is a substitute for another drug.
(d) It bears a colour other than prescribed.
Answer options :
(1) all of the above (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (d) only
75. In sustained release dosage forms, the drug release is retarded due to the presence of : (1) special coat (2) embedded matrix
(3) core tablet (4) granule mix
76. The Time period to supply information under the Right To Information Act (RTI) concerning 'Life or Liberty of Person' is :
(1) 24 hours (2) 32 hours (3) 72 hours (4) 48 hours
77. List of Essential Drugs includes :
(a) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors. T - Zidovudine and its combinations.
(b) Insect Repellant - Diethyl toluamide, DDT etc.
(c) Antiparkinson's medicine - Levodopa, Carbidopa.
(d) Plasma substitutes - Tranexamic acid Answer options :
(1) All of the above (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) None of these
78. The following pairs give GMP requirements as per the various schedules. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(1) Schedule T : GMP requirements of Ayurvedic, Unani and Siddha Medicine
(2) Schedule M-I : Requirements of Factory Premises for Manufacturing of Homeopathic Preparations
(3) Schedule M-II : Requirements for manufacturing premises of cosmetics
(4) Schedule N : Requirements for manufacturing of medical devices
79. The present Drugs Controller General of India is :
(1) Dr. G.N. Singh (2) Dr. V.G. Somani
(3) Dr. Harshadeep Kamble (4) Dr. S. Reddy
80. The key principles for the regulation of prices in the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy, 2012, are as follows :
(a) Essentially of Drugs
(b) Control of Formulation Prices only
(c) Market based Pricing
(d) Cost based Pricing Answer options :
(1) (a) and (b) only * (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) all of the above (4) none of the above
81. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is applicable to the following area :
(1) Maharashtra only
(2) Madhya Pradesh only
(3) Gujarat only
(4) All over India except Jammu and Kashmir
82. When was the minocycline, drug belonging to the category of antibiotics, cleared and approved by Drugs Controller General of India, New Delhi ?
(1) June, 1975
(2) January, 2015
(3) January, 1988
(4) May, 1988
83. The functions of the Central Drug Laboratory in respect of the classes of the drugs are enlisted below :
(a) Laboratory in respect of blood grouping and diagnostic kits for Hepatitis B, C virus
- National Institute of Biologicals, Noida
(b) Laboratory with respect to VDRL Antigen - Pasteur Institute, Conoor
(c) Indian Veterinary Research Institute - Haffkine, Parel
(d) Laboratory for Homeopathic medicines - Ghaziabad Which of the above pairs are true ?
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
84. Advertisements of drugs used in following diseases and disorders are prohibited :
(a) drugs for procurement of miscarriage
(b) drugs to correct menstrual disorders in women
(c) drugs to improve fairness
(d) drugs to improve the power of human beings for sexual pleasure Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
85. National Cancer Registry Programme which is a part of the National Cancer Control Programme was initiated in the year 1982 by which of the following organizations ?
(1) AICTE
(2) UGC
(3) ICMR
(4) Tata Cancer Research Center
86. The main regulatory authorities which issue guidelines that are globally accepted and followed by Pharma Industries are :
(a) USFDA (United States Food and Drug Administration)
(b) UKMCA (The Medicine Control Agency)
(c) ICH (International Conference on Harmonization)
(d) WHO (World Health Organization)
Answer options :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) All of the above (4) None of the above
87. The functions of Central Drug Laboratory in respect of any drug or class of drugs are carried out at:
(a) Central Research Institute, Kasauli
(b) Prescribed laboratory by central government
(c) ISO certified laboratory
(d) NAAC accredited laboratory Answer options :
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only
88. Functional Foods are termed as neutraceuticals* Which of the following is/are the example/s of neutraceuticals ?
(a) Isolated compounds (b) Dietary supplements
(c) Designed foods (d) Processed foods Answer options :
(1) (b) only (2) (c) only
(3) (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all
89. Narcotic Drugs include :
(a) Coca Leaf
(b) Acetorphine
(c) Cannabis
(d) Ketobemidone
Which of the above options are correct ?
a) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) All of the above (4) None of the above
90. For Import Licence which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Import Licence in Form 10 - A to import drugs is specified in schedule - X.
(2) Import Licence in Form 10 is to import drugs excluding those specified in schedule - X.
(3) An application for import Licence shall be made in Form 8 for Drugs excluding those specified in schedule - X.
(4) An application for import licence shall be made in Form 9A for drugs specified in schedule X.
91. The permitted synthetic organic colours and natural colours used in the cosmetics shall not contain more than :
(a) 2 parts per million of Arsenic calculated as Arsenic Trioxide
(b) 20 parts per million of lead calculated as lead
(c) 2 parte per million of mercury compounds
(d) 100 parts per million of Heavy Metals other than lead calculated as the total of the respective metals
Answer options :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
92. Poison Act, 1919 mentions :
The power of state government to regulate possession for sale and sale of any poison. Such rules give details pertaining to :
(a) The grant of licences to possess any specified poison for sale, wholesale, retail and fixing of the fees to be charged for such licences.
(b) The classes of person to whom alone such licences may be granted or sold.
(c) The maximum quantity of any such poison which may be sold to any one person.
(d) The maintenance of record by such vendors and the labelling, packaging and safe custody by person who sold or possessed it for sale.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) None of these
93. Drug will be deemed to be spurious if :
(a) If it is imported under a name which belongs to another drug.
(b) If it is coloured, coated, powdered or polished so that damage is concealed.
(c) If it is not labelled in the prescribed manner.
(d) If it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) only (a)
94. Select the logically equivalent option with respect to the statement given below. "If Uma and Sohil go for a beach walk, then it is raining."
(1) If it is not raining then Uma and Sohil do not go for a beach walk.
(2) If Uma and Sohil do not go for a beach walk, then it is raining.
(3) If Uma and Sohil do not go for a beach walk, then it is not raining.
(4) If it is not raining then Uma and Sohil go for a beach walk.
95. Donu, Nanu and Yonu who belong to three different communities, participated in a chapati making competition and one of them won the trophy. They belong to communities namely Romi, Mori and Bori. All members of Romi community always make true statements, all members of Mori community always make untrue statements, all members of Bori community make true and untrue statements alternately. They made the following statements when reporter asked them to comment.
Donu : If Yonu had not disturbed me by singing loudly while making chapatis I would have won the trophy. Yonu always speaks the truth. Yonu is the winner.
Nanu : Donu won the trophy. Yonu is not the member of Mori community.
Yonu : I was not singing to disturb Donu. Nanu won the trophy.
Who won the trophy ?
Answer options :
(1) Yonu
(2) Donu
(3) Nanu
(4) Yonu and Donu jointly won the trophy
96. Select a set of logically appropriate images for filling empty places.
97. Select logically appropriate set of images to fill the blank places of following arrangement.
98. A family consists of H, G, F, E, D and C as its members. C has two sons, an unmarried daughter and a daughter-in-law and his wife shares all his responsibilities. H and his mother D are very supportive to G's wife in her social work. H is the brother-in-law of above mentioned daughter-in-law. G's sister assists G's wife E in her social work. Select option that indicates Cs daughter.
(1) G (2) F (3) E (4) H
99. Select the appropriate option for replacing the question mark.
100. Choose appropriate alternative to replace the question marks ?
