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Drug Inspector Question Paper of Pharmacology JPSC - 2013

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Question Paper of Pharmacology for Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC) - 2013

1. What the body does to the drug is called as
(A) Pharmacodynamics Pharmacokinetics
(C) Pharmacogenomics
(D) Pharmacotherapeutics

2. The science of detection, diagnosis and treatment of poisoning is called as
(A) toxicology
(B) clinical toxicology
(C) toxicodynamics
(D) toxicokinetics

3. Nitroglycerine can be adminis-tered through the following route of drug administration to avoid its first pass metabolism
(A) Oral
(B) Rectal
(C) f Sublingual
(D) Inhalation

4. Morphine bioavailability may be increased by its
(A) first pass elimination
(B) ionization
(C) enterohepatic cycling
(D) All of the above

5. Digoxin produces cardiac arrhyth¬mias as a cardiac adverse effect which is due to
(A) disturbed impulse formation
(B) disturbed impulse conduction
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above ‘ -

6. The term is used clinically to
describe a medical emergency caused by allergy to a variety of agents.
(A) prophylaxis
(B) anaphylaxis
(C) trauma
(D) proteolysis


7. A non-selective (3-adrenoceptor antagonist with additional a!-blocking activity is
(A) carvedilol
(B) propranolol
(C) atenolol
(D) oxprenolol

8. Obesity is measured by BMI (Body Mass Index) and the following is the ideal range of it
(A) 25 0-29-9 kg/m2
(B) 30-0-39-9 kg/m2
(C) 18-5-24-9 kg/m2
(D) 18-5-40-0 kg/m2

9. GABAB subtype receptor belongs to the following receptor type
(A) Ligand-gated channel
(B) Voltage-gated channel
(C) Calcium-release channel
(D) G-Protein-Coupled receptor

10. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents will reduce carbohydrate absorption and cause flatulence?
(A) Tolbutamide
(B) Glibenclamide
(C) Rosiglitazone
(D) Acarbose

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11. Ketamine, a non-barbiturate general anaesthetic agent, induces complete analgesia combined with amnesia is called as
(A) neuroleptanalgesia
(B) dissociative anaesthesia
(C) infiltration anaesthesia
(D) None of the above

12. The antibiotic ciprofloxacin causes
(A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
(B) leakage of cell membranes
(C) inhibition of protein synthesis
(D) inhibition of DNA gyrase

13. Chloramphenicol was the drug of choice for typhoid fever, its major adverse effect is
(A) bone-marrow depression
(B) hypersensitivity reactions
(C) gray-baby syndrome
(D) All of the above

14. In chronic alcoholism, the antagonist used is
(A) N-acetylcysteine
(B) disulfiram
(C) aspirin
(D) phenobarbitone

15. ‘Co-trimoxazole ’ is the combina-tion of trimethoprim and sulfa-methoxazole in the ratio of
(A) 2:3
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 1:5
(D) 3 : 2

16. The calcium channel blocker verapamil is a
(A) class LA antiarrythmic drug
(B) class II antiarrythmic drug
(C)  class III antiarrythmic drug
(D)  class IV antiarrythmic drug

17. The drug which will inhibit MAO-B irreversibly and used in Parkinson’s disease is
(A) selegiline
(B) bromocriptine
(C) pergolide
(D) amantadine

18. The relative nephrotoxicity among
(A) indomethacin > fenoprofen > ibuprofen
(B) fenoprofen > indomethacin > ibuprofen
(C) ibuprofen > indomethacin > fenoprofen
(D) mefenamic acid > fenoprofen > indomethacin

19. The main adverse effect of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor enalapril is
(A) diy cough
(B) bone-marrow depression
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

20. Which of the H2 receptor blockers, used as an anti-ulcer agent, has anti-androgenic action?
(A) Famotidine
(B) Roxatidine
(C) Ranitidine
(D) Cimetidine

21. Which of the following acts as an agonist on morphine k receptors and has weak antagonist activity at p and 8 receptors?
(A) Buprenorphine
(B) Pentazocine
(C) Propoxyphene
(D) Tramadol

22. A non-cardioselective beta adrenergic blocking agent with beta blocking potency similar to that of propranolol and which has no membrane stabilizing action is
(A) atenolol
(B) esmolol
(C) sotalol
(D) betaxolol

23.______is a symptom which arises
when there is an imbalance between the demand for oxygen and its supply to the myocardium.
(A) Hypertension
(B) Angina pectoris
(C) Neutropenia
(D) Meningitis

24. Which of the following is a systemic antacid used in alkalosis condition?
(A) Sodium bicarbonate
(B) Aluminium hydroxide gel
(C) Magnesium trisilicate
(D) Calcium carbonate

25. Plantago seeds which are used in constipation belong to the class
(A) stimulant laxatives
(B) osmotic laxatives
(C) bulk laxatives
(D) irritant laxatives

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26. Sildenafil is used in erectile
dysfunction. It is an inhibitor of enzyme.
(A) phosphodiesterase 3
(B) phosphodiesterase 4
(C) phosphodiesterase 5
(D) adenyl cyclase

27. Anti-dopaminergic anti-emetic agent is
(A) cyclizine
(B) scopolamine
(C) metoclopramide
(D) ondansetron

28. The following is a drug which is an HMG-CoA-reductase inhibitor, used as lipid lowering drug
(A) Cholestyramine
(B) Gemfibrozil
(C) Omega 3-PUFA
(D) Rosuvastatin

29.__________is a chronic disorder characterized by loss of appetite and self-induced weight loss, accompanied by psychological and physiological alterations in the body.
(A) Pancreatitis
(B) Anorexia nervosa
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Cirrhosis

30. A state in which- the kidney’s ability to maintain homeostasis has declined suddenly, with resultant retention of metabolic waste products as well as electrolytes, is
(A) metabolic acidosis
(B) metabolic alkalosis
(C) acute renal failure
(D) hypochloremic alkalosis

31. Treatment of hypoglycemia in unconscious patients can be achieved with
(A) insulin
(B) somatostatin
(C) glucagon
(D) octreotide

32. Irritable bowel disease (IBS) can be treated with
(A) prednisolone
(B) mesalazine
(C) azathioprine
(D) All of the above

33. Hyponatremia is a condition caused in the body due to
(A) high plasma sodium concen-tration
(B) low plasma sodium concen-tration
(C) low plasma nitrogen concen-tration
(D) low plasma potassium concentration

34. Tolvaptan used in the treatment of hyponatremia is an antagonist of
(A) aldosterone
(B) Na+/K+ ATPase
(C) anti-diuretic hormone
(D) carbonic anhydrase

35. Aplastic anemia is caused due to
(A) derangement of blood cells function
(B) increased destruction of blood cells
(C) impaired production of blood cells
(D) None of the above

36. The common name of pteroyl- monoglutamic acid is
(A) folic acid
(B) paraaminobenzoic acid
(C) acetysalicylic acid
(D) glutamic acid

37. Among the following, which one is a potent and specific chelator of iron used in the treatment of iron poisoning?
(A) Desferrioxamine
(B) Disulfiram
(C) Erythropoietin
(D) Ferric gluconate

38. In gastroesophageal reflux disease, which one of the following will be more effective?
(A) Anti-secretory agent— cimetidine
(B) Proton pump inhibitor— omeprazole
(C) Mucosal protective agent— sucralfate
(D) Prostaglandin E analogue— misoprostol

39. ‘Zidovudine’ anti-viral agent acts as
(A) nucleoside reverse trans-criptase inhibitor
(B) DNA polymerase inhibitor
(C) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
(D) protease inhibitor

40. A very insoluble fungistatic drug which can be used in the systemic treatment of dermatophyte infections of the skin and nails is
(A) amphotericin A
(B) fluconazole
(C) terbinafine
(D) griseofulvin

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41. Dose-dependent nephrotoxicity is the major significant toxic reaction for the anti-fungal agent
(A) flucytosine
(B) clotrimazole
(C) amphotericin B
(D) ketoconazole

42. Which of the following combi-nation of drugs is most active and effective in treating tuberculosis?
(A) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
(B) Isoniazid and ethambutol
(C) Streptomycin arid rifampicin
(D) Isoniazid and rifampicin

43. Cefotaxime is a cephalosporin belongs to
(A) first-generation sporins
(B) second-generation sporins
(C) third-generation sporins
(D) fourth-generation sporins

44. Identify the synthetic lipo- glycopeptide antibiotic that is effective against methicillin resistant S. aureus (MRSA).
(A) Daptomycin
(B) Telavancin
(C) Cycloserine
(D) Meropenem

45. Gliptins are synthetic blood glucose lowering agents, which are known to inhibit
(A) GLP-1
(B) dipeptidylpeptidase
(C) alpha glucosidase

46. Any abnormality in glucose levels noted for the first time during pregnancy is called as
(A) type 1 diabetes mellitus
(B) type 2 diabetes mellitus
(C) type 3 diabetes mellitus
(D) gestational diabetes mellitus

47. Conversion of protein to glucose is called as
(A) glucogenesis
(B) glycosuria
(C) gluconeogenesis
(D) glycogenolysis

48. Propylthiouracil is used in
(A) hypothyroidism
(B) hyperthyroidism
(C) cretinism
(D) myxedema

49. A loop diuretic can be used in the treatment of
(A) acute pulmonary oedema
(B) chronic heart failure
(C) renal failure
(D) All of the above

50. An anabolic agent, which increases bone formation, is
(A) strontium ranelate
(B) teriparatide
(C) etidronate
(D) calcitonin

51. Among the clotting factors, which one is called as Stuart power factor?
(A) Factor V
(B) Factor XI
(C) Factor IX
(D) Factor X

52.   The mechanism of action of digitalis glycosides is inhibition of
(A)  Ca-dependent    Na+/K+
ATPase enzyme activity
(B)  Mg-dependent    Na+/K+
ATPase enzyme activity
(C)   K+-dependent    Na+/K+
ATPase enzyme activity
(D)   Na+-dependent    Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme activity

53.    Edrophonium, which is an important agent, is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. This drug is
(A)    a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor
(B)    an ultra-short-acting cholin¬esterase inhibitor
(C)    a long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor
(D)    a non-cholinesterase inhibitor

54.    The triad of coma, pinpoint pupils and depressed respiration are the symptoms and signs of
(A)    acute opioid poisoning
(B)    organophosphorus poisoning
(C)    benzodiazepine poisoning
(D)    None of the above

55.  Identify the opioid antagonist.
(A)    Tapentadol
(B)    Hydrocodone
(C)    Naltrexone
(D)    Meperidine

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56. The drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures is
(A) ethosuximide
(B) valproic acid
(C) phenytoin
(D) phenobarbitone

57. An anti-histamine that exhibits a mild CNS-depressant action and has wider margin of safety, also used in psychoneurotic states, is
(A) chlorpromazine
(B) hydroxyzine
(C) cetrizine
(D) chlorpheniramine maleate

58. Which of the following drugs is an odourless gas used as anaesthetic agent?
(A) Nitric oxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Thiopental
(D) Propofol

59. ____ is a disease which is an inherited disorder resulting in progressive brain degeneration, starting in adulthood and causing rapid deterioration and death.
(A) Parkinson’s disease
(B) Huntington’s disease
(C) Alzheimer’s disease
(D) Ischaemic brain disease

60. Among the following, which drug is not suitable for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
(A) MAO-B inhibitor
(B) Drug that releases dopamine
(C) Cholinesterase inhibitor
(D) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

61. The route of administration used to administer diazepam to children who are in status epilepticus, in whom it is difficult to establish intravenous access, is
(A) sublingual route
(B) rectal route
(C) oral route
(D) inhalationai route

62. _________ is a special type of bioassay done to compare the clinical efficacy of a new drug or procedure with that of a known drug or procedure (or a placebo).
(A) Graded bioassay
(B) Quantal bioassay
(C) Clinical trial
(D) None of the above

63. A cell suicide by a built-in self- destruct mechanism consisting of a genetically programmed sequence of biochemical events is called as
(A) angiogenesis
(B) apoptosis
(C) necrosis
(D) None of the above

64. Many diuretics predispose to digoxin toxicity due to
(A) lower plasma K+ levels
(B) lower plasma Na+ levels
(C)  lower plasma Ca+2 levels
(D)  lower plasma Mg+2 levels

65. Aminoglycoside’s main adverse drug reaction is
(A) hepatotoxicity
(B) tinnitus
(C) teratogenicity
(D) ototoxicity

66. Platelet anti-aggregatory action is produced by aspirin, but not to a significant extent by other salicylates. This is due to its
(A) amino group
(B) acetyl group
(C) nitro group
(D) None of the above

67. Fludrocortisone is used in the treatment of
(A) Addison’s disease
(B) peptic ulcer disease
(C) tuberculosis
(D) diabetes mellitus

68. Which of the following causes drug-induced hyperglycemia?
(A) Disopyramide
(B) Alcohol
(C) Phenytoin
(D) Pentamidine

69. A serious complication of long standing untreated hypothy-roidism is
(A) myxedema coma
(B) endemic goitre
(C) dwarfism
(D) thyroid carcinoma

70. From the following drugs, which one is most effective in treatment of breast cancer?
(A) Flutamide
(B) Progestin
(C) Tamoxifen
(D) Baclofen

71. An antibiotic with anti-cancer properties is
(A) doxorubicin
(B) azithromycin
(C) erythromycin
(D) clarithromycin

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72. The folic acid antagonistic, aaiti- cancer agent which is also used in rheumatoid arthritis is
(A) azathioprine
(B) busulfan
(C) methotrexate
(D) fluorouracil

73. Filarial infections caused by parasites that lead to elephan-tiasis are treated with
(A) albendazole and mebendazole
(B) diethylcarbamazine and ivermectin
(C) albendazole and ivermectin
(D) ivermectin and mebendazole

74. The drug of choice in round- worm infections that is widely used as a single dose deworming agent is
(A) mebendazole
(B) albendazole
(C) ivermectin
(D) praziquantel

75. An anthelmintic agent which affects the worm in such a way that it is easily expelled from the body is known as
(A) fungicidal
(B) fungistatic
(C) vermifuge
(D) vermicidal

76. A specific cellular glycoproteins, produced naturally by virus- infected cells, and have anti-viral actions. They are known as
(A) prostaglandins
(B) leucocytes
(C) gamma globulins
(D) interferons

77. Identify the teratogenic drug.
(A) Gentamicin
(B) Etretinate
(C) Chloramphenicol
(D) Methyldopa

78; Drug miltefosine is highly effective in the treatment of
(A) tuberculosis
(B) leishmaniasis
(C) leprosy

79. The triple response observed upon intradermal injection is the characteristic nature of
(A) histamine
(B) dopamine
(C) adrenaline
(D) ketamine

80. Catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid
(A) cystine
(B) phenylalanine
(C) proline
(D) glycine

81. A muscarinic blocker used as a bronchodilator is
(A) tolterodine
(B) scopolamine
(C) ipratropium
(D) cyclopentolate

82. A diuretic agent widely used in closed angle glaucoma is
(A) acetazolamide
(B) furosemide
(C) chlorothiazide
(D) spironolactone

83. A Pi-selective blocker which is having less bronchopulmonaiy and cardiac side effects, also used in glaucoma, is
(A) timolol
(B) propranolol
(C) betaxolol
(D) esmolol

84. Myasthenia gravis is an auto-immune disorder, caused due to development of antibodies which are known to destroy the
(A) muscarinic receptors
(B) nicotinic receptors
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

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85. The process of a tissue-damaging immune response directed specifically and inappropriately against one or more self- antigen(s) is /are called as
(A) immunity
(B) autoimmunity
(C) tachyphylaxis
(D) prophylaxis

86. Penicillin half-life can be increased by decreasing the rate of excretion (by active tubular secretion), using a weak acidic agent
(A) paraaminohippurate
(B) paraaminobenzoic acid
(C) probenecid
(D) acetylsalicylic acid

87. The primary hormone respon-sible for controlling breast milk production is prolactin and the drug that decreases serum prolactin level is
(A) metoclopramide
(B) sulpiride
(C) bromocriptine
(D) haloperidol

88. Binding to the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor y in muscle, fat and liver to decrease insulin resistance is the main mechanism of action of
(A) acarbose
(B) metformin
(C) glimepiride
(D) rosiglitazone

89. Emesis associated with cancer is treated with
(A) granisetron
(B) ondansetron
(C) metoclopramide
(D) All of the above

90. Aztreonam is a
(A) carbapenem
(B) monobactam
(C) macrolide
(D) ketolide

91. Drug that used to treat migraine headache is
(A) sumatriptan
(B) misoprostol
(C) cyclizine
(D) doxepin

92. The antidotes for organo- phosphate poisoning are
(A) atropine and pralidoxime
(B) atropine and physostigmine
(C) atropine and A-acetylcysteine
(D) atropine and dimercaprol

93. The main mechanism of action of lamivudine is  
(A) inhibition of polymerase viral DNA
(B) inhibition
neuraminidase of viral
(C) inhibition of viral DNA polymerase and transcriptase reverse
(D) interference protease with viral

94. Among the following, which one is immunosuppressive anti-metabolite?
(A) Cyclosporin
(B) Azathioprine
(C) Prednisolone
(D) Tacrolimus

95. A PGF2ot analogue used in the treatment of elevated intra¬ocular pressure is
(A) iloprost
(B) alprostadil
(C) latanoprost
(D) misoprostol

96. Acetaminophen has less or weak anti-inflammatory activity which is due to
(A) less effect on prostaglandins
(B) less effect on cyclooxygenase
(C) less effect on pain receptors
(D) less effect on cytokines

97. The specific antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
(A) flumazenil
(B) misoprostol
(C) JV-acetylcysteine
(D) physostigmine

98. An angiotensin receptor blocker is
(A) captopril
(B) ramipril
(C) telmisartan
(D) minoxidil

99. Among the following drugs, which one belongs to class III, K+ channel blocking anti-arrhythmic agents?
(A) Diltiazem
(B) Verapamil
(C) Amiodarone
(D) Propranolol

100. An aldosterone antagonist used in heart failure and Conn’s syndrome is
(A) diazoxide
(B) bumetanide
(C) eplerenone (D) furosemide


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