• An objective type of exam where candidates must mark the correct choice of answer in an OMR answer sheet.
• This question paper consists of 12 pages.
• The question paper for written test is in English only and the 100 questions carrying equal marks is of Objective type. Duration of exam is 90 minutes. Answer to the questions must be marked on OMR answer sheet. There is 0.33 Negative marking for wrong answers.
• In the answer sheet, use BLACK BALL POINT pen only for Name, name of the post, Roll number, application number, answers, sign, etc.
• If the answer sheet is NOT numbered, immediately get the answer sheet replaced from the invigilator.
• Answer sheet will have space for sign/initials of the candidate and the invigilator.
• Immediately after the exam starts, please check if the question paper has any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items. In such a case, you must get the complete question paper replaced.
• Space is provided for rough work in the question paper on last page.
• The answer sheet is NOT supposed to be folded or mutilated in any way.
• You are also NOT supposed to write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
• The OMR is going to be evaluated by a computer. So, you must take extreme caution while marking in the answer sheet. Since you cannot erase the answers once marked (with a black ball point), please take care to mark it carefully.
• The questions will be printed in the question paper. It contains questions under each of which four choices will be given. You must mark the answer in the Answer Sheet (OMR Sheet) against the appropriate serial number.
• You must mark the correct answer choice in the answer sheet by completely darkening the circle against the correct choice (a/b/c/d) with a black ball point pen- only.
• Candidate must handover OMR answer sheet to invigilator after completion of exam. Before handing over OMR answer sheet to invigilator, please check admit card number correctly entered or NOT.
1. Arrange the following sentences into a meaningful sequence. (A) To bring ease in the city, they decided to build an underground railway line. (B) Calcutta unlike other cities kept its trams. (C) As a result, there was horrendous congestion. (D)They cut down the centre of the roads. (E) It was going to be the first in South Asia.
A. CABED B. DECAB C. BDCAE D. ADCBE
2.How many triangles are in the sketch?
A. 18 B. 17 C. 16 D. 15
3. How many squares in the figure? 
A. 16 B. 18 C. 25 D. 27
4. Choose the missing terms CMW, HRB, ?, RBL, WGQ, BLV
A. MWG B. LVF C. LWG D. WMX
5. A trader marks the Selling Price of an object at a profit of 20%. Considering the demand of the object, he further increases the price by 10%. Find the final profit %.
A. 30% B. 31% C. 32% D. 25%
6. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRIV. How can CENTRAL be written in that code?
A. DFOUSBM B. GIRXVEP C. GNFJKER D. GJRYVEP
7. Pipe A can fill a tank in 16 minutes and pipe B can empty the full tank in 24 minutes. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how many minutes if pipe B is closed, the tank will be filled in 20 minutes??
A. 5 minutes B. 8 minutes C. 6 minutes D. 4 minutes
8. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of “EFFICACY”
A. Solemnity B. Efficiency C. Ruthlessness D. Delicacy
9. Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of “erudite”
A. Unfamiliar B. Illiterate C. Unknown D Scholarly
10. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?
A. Uncle B. Brother C. Cousin D. Son
11. The hologram statue of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose has been unveiled at which place by PM Modi on his birth anniversary on January 23?
A. Rashtrapati Bhavan B. Red Fort C. India Gate D. Indian Museum
12. Which state’s assembly became the 1st paperless assembly with e-Vidhan Project?
A. Jharkhand B. Gujarat C. Nagaland D. Tamil Nadu
13. India's first para-badminton academy has been set up in which city?
A. Hyderabad B. Chennai C. Lucknow D. Pune
14. Which city is the host of the 2024 Summer Paralympics?
A. Rome B. Paris C. Athens D. Beijing
15. What is the projected GDP growth rate of the global economy in 2022, as per the World Bank’s June 2022 report?
A. 3.2% B. 4.1% C. 2.9% D. 5.5%
16. Chris Morris who has announced retirement from all forms of cricket, represented which country?
A. England B. New Zealand C. Australia D. South Africa
17. The full strength of the Supreme Court of India is --?
A. 9 Judges including Chief Justice B. 15 Judges C. 25 Judges D. 34 Judges
18. The 2022 Women's Hockey Asia Cup was held in which country?
A. Myanmar B. Oman C. India D. Thailand
19. Darvaza gas crater, also known as the 'Gateway to Hell', is located in which country?
A. Russia B. USA C. Indonesia D. Turkmenistan
20. Which year British transferred the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi?
A. 1900 B. 1930 C. 1911 D. 1912
21. Which institution was founded by Gandhi? A: Phoenix Ashram B: Vishwa Bharati C: Seva Ashram D: Jawaharlal Nehru university
22. Tadoba national park known for sheltering tiger, panther and bear is located in:
A. Siliguri (Assam) B. Chandrapur (Maharashtra) C. Chikkamagaluru (Karnataka) D. Madhurai (Tamil Nadu)
23. In geography who propounded the theory of convectional current hypothesis?
A. Arthur Holmes B. Carl Ritter C. Arnaldo Faustini D. Immanuel Kant
24. Mahe and Yanam are the parts of the Union Territory of:
A. Dadar Nagar Haveli B. Chandigarh C. Daman and Diu D. Puducherry
25. World Environmental day is celebrated on ________ every year.
A. 1 st May B. 05th June C. 01st October D. 01st December 26 What terms will fill the blank spaces? Z, X, V, T, R, (…..), (…..) A. O, K B. N, M C. K, S D. P, N
27. Choose the number which is different from others in the group.
A. 12 B. 25 C. 37 D. 49
28. The LCM of 22, 54, 108, 135 and 198 is:
A. 330 B. 1980 C. 5940 D. 11880
29. Mark the correct answer of 5004 / 139 – 6 =?
A. 30 B. 39 C. 44 D. 55
30. The square root of 0.16?
A. 0.004 B. 0.04 C. 0.4 D. 0.0004
31. When was the International Day of Epidemic Preparedness 2022 been celebrated recently?
A. 24 December B. 27 December C. 22 December D. 19 December
32. The T The length of the bridge, which a train 130 meters long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross pass in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m B. 225 m C. 245 m C. 250 m
33. Choose the correct alternative based on relationship: Oxygen : Burn : : Carbon dioxide : ?
A. Isolate B. Foam C. Extinguish D. Explode
34. Which of the following mountain is a part of UNESCO would Heritage Sites?
A. Aravalli B. Western Ghats C. Eastern Ghats D. Himalayas
35. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence : 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210 ?
A. 240 B. 290 C. 336 D. 504
36. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. The largest of these numbers is:
A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24
37. Intensity of the electric current is measured in
A. Amperes B. Volt C. Power D. Newton
38. Which color will appear when we mix red and green?
A. Yellow B. Purple C. Pink D. White
39. Which bacteria are used to make curd from milk?
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pseudomonas aureus C. Lactococcus lactis D. Yeast
40. The longest beach of India is situated at which of the following place?
A. Mumbai B. Chennai C. Goa D. Tuticorin
41. Replace the words/phrase in bold italics with suitable one word. The orator is really good at speaking without any preparation. A. fluency B. fast C. impromptu D. plainly
42. Read the comprehension and answer the questions (42-46) : A man may usually be known by the books he reads as well as by the company he keeps. There exists a companionship of books as well as of men. One should always live in the best company, whether it be of books or of men. A good book may be among the best of friends. It is the same today that it always was and it will never change. It is the most patient and cheerful of companions. It does not turn its back upon us in times of adversity. It always receives us with the same kindness, amusing and interesting us in youth, comforting and consoling us in age. According to the writer, “A man may usually be known by the books he reads.” What does this mean? A. His reading habit shows that he is a scholar. B. The books he read affect his thinking and character. C. Books provide him with a lot of knowledge. D. His selection of books generally reveals his temperament and character.
43. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Good books as well as good men always provide the finest company. B. A good book never betray us. C. We have sometimes to be patient with a book as it may bore us. D. A good book serves as a permanent friend.
44. The statement “A good book may be among the best of friends” in the middle of the passage means that :
A. There cannot be a better friend than a good book. B. Books may be good friends, but not better than good men. C. A good book can be included among the best friends of mankind. D. Our best friends read the same good books.
45. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word “adversity” in the passage?
A. Happiness B. prosperity C .progress D. misfortune
46. Which one of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Books show the reader’s character B. Books as man’s abiding friends C. Books are useful for our youth D. Importance of Books in old age
47. Fill in the blanks with correctly spelt word from the options given below. I really want to _______ some weight.
A. loose B. lost C. lose D. loss
48. Directions (Q 48 to 50): Pick out the most effective word from the options given to fill in the blanks to make the sentences meaningfully complete. He took his aged mother to see a ______ physician.
A. paediatric B. geriatric C. neonatologist D. endodontist
49. ________ prices cause hardship to the poor.
A. falling B. fixed C. reasonable D. escalating
50. The decision will _____ the entire nation.
A. implore B. implement C impact D impoverish
51. Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid at room temperature?
A. Phosphorous B. Bromine C. Chlorine D. Helium
52. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is
A. Copper B. Magnesium C. Iron D. Calcium
53. The average salinity of seawater is
A. 3% B. 3.5% C. 2.5% D. 2%
54. Crystallisation of sugar is due to
A. Saturation B. Drying C. Unsaturation D. Low concentration
55. Aqueous iodine solution is called
A. Lugols solution B. Bendits solution C. Fischer Solution D. Martins solution
56. Calamine is
A. Zinc acetate B. Zinc Sulphate C. Zinc carbonate D. Zinc oxide
57. Which test microorganism is used for most heat sterilization technique?
A. Bacillus Subtilis B. Bacillus thermophiles C. Bacillus thuringiensis D. Bacillus popilliae
58. What is Humectant?
A. Used to prevent drying of cream B. Reduce particle density C. Used to improve humidity D. Reduce particle size
59. Gelatin is used as
A. Sweetener B. Encapsulating agent C. Antifungal agent D. Stabilizer
60. Which amongst the following is responsible for Urinary Tract Infection :
A. Virus B. E. Coli C. Protozoa D. M. Leprae
61. As per GMP permitted limit of soluble content in water for injection is
A. 0.1 ppm B. 1 ppm C. 10 ppm D. 0.01 ppm
62. Which of the following dye is used for the leakage test?
A. Methyl orange B. Methyl violet C. Methylene rose D. Methylene blue
63. If the Carr's index of powder is 10% type of powder flow is…?
A. Good B. Average C. Excellent D. Poor
64. Which of the following compound possess high aqueous solubility.
A. Hydrated B. Anhydrous C. Semisolid D. Crystals
65. Which of the following is a polar aprotic Solvent
A. Water B. Ethanol C. Chloroform D. DMF
66. How many isomers are possible for glucose
A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16
67. Staggered and eclipsed is a type of
A. Geometrical isomer B. Enantiomer C. Conformer D. Tautomer
68. Which of the following is meta directive
A. Nitro B. Cyano C. Ester D. All the above
69. Which of the following is not aromatic
A. Cyclopentadiene B. Cyclopentadienyl anion C. Anthracene D. Tetracene
70. Sodium in liquid ammonia is used in
A. Clemenson reduction B. Birch reduction C. Wolf-Kishner reduction D. Stephen reduction
71. Mixture of amino acids can be separated by
A. Chromatography B. Sublimation C. Distillation D. Denaturation
72. Ascorbic acid tablets can be assayed by
A. Titration with iodine solution
B. Oxidation involving 2,6-dichlorophenol indophenols
C. Titration with cerric ammonium sulphate
D. Titration with sodium hydroxide solution
73. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound?
A. Dopamine B Endorphins C Noradrenaline D Desipramine
74. Which of the following drugs was not isolated from a natural source?
A. Quinine B. Morphine C. Isoniazid D. Artimisinin
75. The intermediate of SN1 reaction is
A. Carbanion B. Carbocation C. Ylide D. Carbene
76. Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
77. Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of Niacin?
A. Scurvy B. Rickets C. Pellagra D. Pernicious anaemia
78. A molecule of amylopectin which contains 1500 glucose residues and is branched after every 30 residues. How many reducing ends are there?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5
79. Which of the following amino sugar are present in the bacterial cell wall?
A. N-acetylmuramic acid B. Sialic acid C. Aminoglycoside D. Azide
80. The life span of WBC is approximately
A. Less than 10 days B. Between 10 to 20 days C. Between 20 to 30 days D. Between 30 to 45 days
81. Blood is stained with _________ stain.
A. Methylene blue B. Safranin C. Leishman stain D. Carbol fuchsine
82. Red cell count is carried out by _________
A. Electrogram B. Sphygmomanometer C. Haemoglobinometer D. Haemocytometer
83. Which of the following produces citric acid.
A. Aspergillus B. Pseudomonas C. Saccharomyces D. Clostridium
84. Which of the following organisms is used in alcoholic fermentation?
A. Pseudomonas B. Aspergillus C. Saccharomyces D. Penicillium
85. Example of acid fast bacteria ……
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E. coli C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Salmonella typhi
86. Alpha naphthol and KOH is used for …… A. Voges-Proskauer test B. Indole test C. Citrate test D. Methyl red test
87. Cidex is known as ……
A. 1% solution of glutaraldehyde
B. 2% solution of glutaraldehyde
C. 0.2% solution of glutaraldehyde
D. 0.1% solution of glutaraldehyde
88. In MR-VP test, pink colour produced by ……
A. E. coli B. Mycobacterium C. Klebsiella D. Cocci
89. Which of the following antibiotic is act against Gram positive microbes.
A. Penicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Streptomycin D. Amikacin
90. A biological assay use to assess the mutagenic potential of a Pharmaceutical product is ———
A. Antibiotic assay B. Toxicity test C. Sterility test D. Ames test
91. GMP stands for ——-
A. Good manufacturing process B. Good manufacturing practice C. Good marketing process D. General manufacturing practice
92. Which of the following media is used for sterility test
A. MacConkey’s medium B. Nutrient medium C. Ashby’s agar medium D. Fluid thioglycollate medium
93. The example of pseudo alkaloid
A. Caffeine B. Arecoline C. Lobeline D. Hygrine
94. Papaverine shows pharmacological activity
A. Emetic B. Antipyretic C. Spasmolytic D. Antitussive
95. Morphine posses main nucleus
A. Naphthalene B. Anthracene C. Phenanthrene D. Picene
96. Eugenol is present in
A. Fennel B. Tulsi C. Cardamom D Coriander
97. Smallest bone of the body is
A. Malleus B. Incus C. Stapes D. Femur
98. Select the correct name for the cranial nerve - X
A. Olfactory B. Optic C. Facial D. Vagus
99. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli is ___________.
A. 160 mm Hg B) 105 mm Hg C. 40 mm Hg D. 45 mm Hg
100. During the embryonic development midbrain is developed from?
A. Rhombencephalon B. Mesencephalon C. Procencephelon D Telencephelon
