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pharma courses

 

consultant

Q.76    Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?
[P] It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol.
(A)   P&Q    (B)   R&S    (C)   Q&R    (D)   Q & S

Q.77    Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
(A)   Quinine    (B)   Morphine    (C)   Atropine    (D)   Ephedrine

Q.78    Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
(A)   Digitalis    (B)   Hyoscyamus    (C)   Mentha    (D)   Senna

Q.79    A glycoalkaloid,
[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule.
[Q] is glycosidic in nature.
[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.
[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.
Choose the correct option.
(A)   P&R    (B)   Q&S    (C)   Q&R    (D)   P&Q

Q.80    Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
(A)   Valerian    (B)   Brahmi    (Q5   Satavari    (D)   Adusa

Q.81    The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family.   Find a WRONG combination.
(A)    Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
(B)    Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
(C)    Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
(D)    Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae

Q.82    Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG combination.
(A)    Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
(B)    Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
(C)    Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
(D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya

Q.83    Determine the correctness or otherwise mt the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Tannins are polyphenohc substances occurring in plant cell sap.
Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test.
Reason (r)     : The condensed tannin- are resistant to acid hydrolysis, therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.
(A)    Both (a) and (r) are true, and r . -    reason for (a)
(B)    Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r is NOT :he correct reason for (a)
(C)    (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(D)    Both (a) and (r) are false

Q.84    In  acetate  mevalonate   pathway  geranyl  pyrophosphate  leads  to  formation  of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.
[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units
[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms
[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes
[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 H8.
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A)    P is    true, Q is false, R is true, S    is false
(B)    P is    false, Q is true, R is true, S    is false
(C)    P is    true, Q is true, R is false, S    is true
(D)    P is    true, Q is false, R is true, S    is true

Q.85    Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.
Reason (r)     : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in alcohol and its purgative action.
(A)    Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(B)    (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C)    Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D)      Both (a) and (r) are false

Q.86    Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis?
(A)   Atropine    (B)   Ephedrine    (C)   Phentolamine   (D)   Cocaine

Q.87    Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?
(A)   Atenolol    (B)   Carvedilol    (C)   Propranolol       (D)   Esmolol

Q.88    Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?
(A)   ACE inhibitors    (B)   Statins
(C)   Calcium channel blockers    (D)   Sodium channel blockers

Q.89    Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not to take sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following actions?
(A)   Respiratory failure    (B)   Severe hypotension
(C)   Prolongation of QT interval    (D)   Myocardial ischemia

Q.90    Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensin-II?
(A)   Causes myocyte hypertrophy
(B)    Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system -f
(C)    Increases force of myocardial contraction
(D)    Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone

Q.91    All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement about them.
[P] Bradykinin    [Q] Minoxidil     [R] Acetylcholine   [S] Hydralazine
(A)    P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
(B)    Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
(C)    R & S cause release of nitric oxide
(D)    P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide

Q.92    Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased states?
(A)   Hypercholesterolemia    (B)   Diabetes mellitus
(C)   Myocardial infarction    (D)   Congestive heart failure

Q.93    Which of the fallowings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL cholesterol?
(A)   Statins    (B)   Niacin
(C)   Ezetimibe    (D)   α-3-Fatty acids

Q.94    Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for Sa-reductase?
(A)   Letrozole and androstenedione    (B)    Finasteride and testolactone
(C)   Finasteride and 5-DHT                   (D)    Finasteride and testosterone

Q.95    Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
(A)   Tyrosine kinase    (B)   DNA
(C)   Ribosomes          (D)   Tubulin

Q.96    A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?
(A)   Metformin        (B)   Pioglitazone    (C)   Glipizide    .(D)   Exenatide

Q.97    Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?
(A)     Cmax    (B)     Tmax    (C)     AUC    (D)     tl/2

Q.98    Which of the following skeletal    muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?
(A)   Pancuronium    (B)   Baclofen
(C)   Dantrolene    (D)   Chlorzoxazone

Q.99    Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given below.
(A)    Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
(B)    Schizophrenia and Mania
(C)    Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
(D)    Parkinson's disease and Autism

Q.100  Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A)    Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(B)    Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(C)    Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
(D)    Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor antagonist.

Q.101   Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as?    -
(A)   Oozing    (B)   Syneresis    (C)   Shrinking    (D)   Desolvation

Q.102   Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer: [P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.
[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.
(A)   P is correct and Q is incorrect    (B)   P is incorrect and Q is correct
(C)   Both P and Q are correct            (D)   Both P and Q are incorrect

Q.103   Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to
[P]    Enzyme induction [Q]   Active secretion
Choose the correct answer.
(A)   Both P and Q are true    (B)   P is true, Q is false
(C)   Q is true, P is false    (D)   Both P and Q are false

Q.104  Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A)    Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
(B)    The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
(C)    Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
(B)    The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi

Q.105  Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
(A)   Subcuteneous    (B)   Intravenous    (C)   Intraspinal       (D)   Intradural

Q.106  Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
(A)   Bacillus stearothermophilus     (B)   Pseudomonas diminuta
(C)   Bacillus subtilis                           (D)   Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q.107  Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
(A)   253.7 nm    (B)   275.5 nm    (C)   283.5 nm    (D)   240.0 nm

Q.108  Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
(A)    Resonance forces
(B)    Resonance and London dispersion forces
(C)    Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
 (D)   Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions

Q.109   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the fallowing statements:
[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol farms gel more readily when sheared gently. [Q] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.
[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.
(AT [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false    (B)   [P] is true but [Q] and [R] are false
(C)   [P], [Q] and [R], all are false              (D)   [P], [Q] and [R], all are true

Q.110  Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
(A)    Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
(B)    Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
(C)    Mobility in two directions and no rotation
(D)    Mobility in three directions and no rotation

Q.111   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.
Reason [r]   : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.
(A)    [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(C)    Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.112   Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
(A)    The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
(B)    The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
(C)    The process of separating white blood cells from blood
(D)    The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders

Q.113   Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A)    Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
(B)    Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
(C)    Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
(D)    Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil

Q.114  What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?
(A)   96 mg    (B)   480 mg    (C)   960 mg    (D)   48 mg

Q.115  The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings?
(A)   Inertial forces to gravitational forces       (B)   Inertial forces' to viscous forces
(C)   Viscous forces to inertial forces    (D)   Viscous forces to gravitational forces

Q.116  What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A)   To increase turbulence    CB)   To decrease turbulence
(C)   To prevent corrosion    (D)   To increase shell side passes

Q.117  Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A)   They are also called amphiphiles    (B)   They contain aggregated molecules
(C)   They show partial solvation    (D)   They are also called micelles

Q.118  What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
(A)   2hr    (B)   4hr    (C)   9 hr    (D)   0.5 hr

Q.119  What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]
(A)   1 : 101    (B)   1 : 201    (C)   2 : 101    (D)   1 : 202

Q.120   If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?
(A)   Saturated liquid    (B)   Saturated vapor
(C)   Superheated liquid    (D)   Superheated vapor

Q.121   S.O.S means which one of the followings?
(A)   Take occasionally    (B)   Take immediately
(C)   Take when necessary    (D)   Take as directed

Q.122  Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A)   Plunger pump    (B)   Diaphragm pump
(C)   Gear pump        (D)   Piston pump

Q.123 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which csold be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.
[P] Astringent action    [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action
[R] Oxidizing action    [S]  Mechanical cleansing action
Choose the correct statements- for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?
(A)   P&R    (B)   P&Q    (C)   R&Q    (D)   R & S

Q.124 Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
(A)Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
(B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
(C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol
(D)Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol

Q.125  A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
(A)   Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
(B)    Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
(C)    Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
(D)    Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent

Q.126 Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:
[P] It has a fixed chemical composition
[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide
[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation
[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A)   Q&S    (B)   R&S    (C)   P&Q    (D)   Q&R

Q.127 An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e. it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?
(A)   Ferric chloride    (B)   Ferric ammonium sulphate
(C)   Ferric ammonium citrate    (D)   Ferrous thioglycollate

Q.128   Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocyclic compounds most readily?
(A)   Pyrrole    (B)   Thiophene    (C)   Furan    (D)   Pyridine

Q.129  Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a]  and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.
Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble compounds.
(A)    Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(B)    Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(C)    (a) is true (r) is false
(D)    Both (a) and (r) are false

Q.130   Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?
(A)    Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized
(B)    Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized
(C)    Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any
(D)    Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two

Q.131   In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?
[P] Brosyl    [Q] Hydroxyl    [R] Chloro    [S] Mesyl
(A)S>R>P>Q        (B)P>S>R>Q
(C)   R>Q>S>P    (D)   R > S > Q > P

Q.132  Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A)   Potassium hydrogen phthalate    (B)   Sodium bicarbonate    
(C)   Potassium dihydrogen phosphate    (D)   Sodium methoxide

Q.133   Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A)    It should be inert to the analyse;
(B)    It should have high viscosity at operating  temperature
(C)    It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
(D)    It should have a high resolving power

Q.134  To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?
(A)    Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions
(B)    Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative
(C)    Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative
(D)    Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative

Q.135   In polarography, DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen overpotential. It means which one of the followings?
(A)    Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME
(B)    Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME
(C)    Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME
(D)    Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME

Q.136   In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?
(A)    A column with high HETP and high number of plates
(B)    A column with low HETP and low number of plates
(C)    A column with high HETP and low number of plates
(D)    A column with low HETP and high number of plates

Q.137   In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
[P]    -C0—CH3  
[Q]    -C—OH
[R]   -CH = CH2
[S] —C=CH
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A)   Q > P > S > R
(B) P > Q > R > S
(C) Q > P > R > S
(D) P > Q > S > R

Q.138  Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A)   Fluorescence detector    (B)   Photo diode array detector
(C)   Refractive index detector    (D)   UV detector

Q.139  A 250 jig/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?
(A)   0.002 cm-1gm-1litre    (B)   0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl
(C)   20 cm-1gm-1 litre    (D)   20 cm1gm-1dl

Q.140  Following statements are given for a chemical reaction:
Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.
(A)    The reaction is spontaneous.
(B)    The reaction is non-spontaneous.
(C)    The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.
(D)    The reaction can never be spontaneous.

Q. 141  Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A)    The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < non conjugated n < a
(B)    Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br atoms in the compound in MS
(C)    Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS
(D)    The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak

Q.142   The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?
(A)    Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons
(B)    Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons
(C)    Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons
(D)    Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons

Q.143  The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?
(A)   Alpha fission                                    (B)   Mc-Laffartey rearrangement
(C)   Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement    (D)   Tropylium ion formation

Q.144  Which one of the followings is NOT bioisostearic pair
(A) Divalent ether (-0-) and amine (–N-H)  
(B) Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)
(C)   Carboxylate (C02-) and sulfone (SO2)
(D)    Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)

Q.145 The catalytic triad in acetylcholineesfcera«e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A)   Serine, Histidine and Glutamate             (B)   Serine, Arginine and Glutamate
(C)   Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate        (D)   Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate

Q.146  Which of the following statements is true?
(A)    Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm
(B)    Spin quantum number of proton  is 1
(C)    Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton
(D)    Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant

Q.147   (3-Carboline ring system is present in
(A)   Emetine                (B)   Riboflavine
(C)   Deserpidine        (D)   d-Tubocurarine

Q.148   Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?
(A)   L-Erythro    (B)   L-Threo    (C)   D-Erythro    (D)   D-Threo

Q.149 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?
(A)   Colour change                   (B)   Appearance of a precipitate
(C)   Neutralization reaction    (D)   Adsorption phenomenon

Q.150 In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator'. What do you understand by this statement?
(A)    The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator
(B)    The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones
(C)    The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones
(D)    The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra

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