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Goa PSC Junior Scientific Officer (drugs) Question Paper - 2020

 

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Goa PSC Junior Scientific Officer Question Paper - 2020

Passage :
Many people find it difficult to understand Shakespeare, but surprisingly he wrote in modern English.Elizabethan English has more similarity to our English than it has with that written by Chaucer.Certainly, many familiar words were first formed or coined by Shakespeare. Around 2000 words and even more phrases owe their origin to Shakespeare. First time readers of his writing are normally surprised by the overwhelming number of cliches present in his plays not knowing that he coined them and they were letter adopted or became part of English. Examples of such phrases are vanish into thin air, one fell swoop, and flesh and blood. He furthermore, he donated many word to English among them, leapfrog, dwindle, critical, majestic, and pendant.
Q1 : A word that is first coined is known as:
(a) logos
(b) syllogism
(c) neologism
(d) synonym
Key : C

Q2 : From the alternatives given below, find an equivalent from the passage that implies: " A word or phrase used so often
so as to lose it's original meaning or sense".
(a) leapfrog
(b) fell
(c) cliche
(d) pendant
Key : C

Q3 : Chaucer mentioned in the passage was
(a) Shakespeare's predecessor
(b) an Elizabethan writer
(c) Shakespeare's contemporary
(d) Shakespware's successor
Key : A

Q4 : From the options provided below, find the equivalent of "all at once" or "at one go"
(a) leapfrog
(b) in one fell swoop
(c) overwhelming
(d) dwindle
Key: B


Q5 : From the alternatives given below, select a suitable title for the above passage:
(a) Majestic Shakespearean English
(b) Shakespeare's Amazing Contribution to English
(c) The Stunning Cliches in Shakespearean English
(d) Overwhelming Elizabethan English
Key : B

Passage : One of the best feelings in the world that also brings so much of cheer to life is laughter. It really is one of the completely alters the atmosphere and mood of the surroundings. Furthermore, it makes you feel good and everyone around you will also feel positive vibes. Laughter acts as a powerful antidote for pain,stress, and conflict. There is nothing that works faster in order to bring back mind and body into balance than a good laugh. Also, humor lightens your burden,connects you to others and keep you focused. Thus, laughter has so much power to renew and heal to laugh frequently is the best way to surmount the problems. Furthermore, it supports your emotional as well as physical health. Additionally, laughter also enhances your relationships.


Q6 : From the alternatives given below, find an equivalent for the term "overcome"
(a) renew and heal
(b) keep focussed
(c) enhance
(d) surmount
Key: D

Q7 : From the alternatives provided below, find a single word from the passage that conveys " emotional signals given
through body language and social interaction"
(a) vibes
(b) humour
(c) mood
(d) cheer
Key: A

Q8 : From the options listed below identify the one that does not describe laughter appropriately.
(a) stress buster
(b) unburdening
(c) mood changer
(d) mood swinger
Key: D

Q9 : With the help of options given below, identify the following statements as True and False.
(I) Laughter enlivens the environment by spreading cheer.
(II) It sends positive signs to people around.
(III) It enhances problems and undermines relationships.
(IV) It rejuvenates the mind and heals the body.
(a) Statements (I) and (II) are True but statements (III)and (IV) are False.
(b) Statements (I), (II) and (IV) are True but statement (III)is False.
(c) Statements(I) and(IV) is True but statements (II)and (III) are False.
(d) All the Statements are True.
Key: B

Q10 : Select a suitable title for the passage from the options given below:
(a) Laughter: an antidote to pain
(b) The best feeling in the world
(c) Laughter: the best medicine
(d) Let us laugh away the blues
Key: C

Q11 : Find out whether the given argument is :
There are hundred marbles in the box
One of the marbles is red.
Ninety nine of the marble is blue.
Therefore, the probability that next marble picked will be blue is 99%.
(a) Inductive
(b) Deductive.
(c) Both
(d) Cannot say
Key: B

Q12 : The definition "'Fault' means flaw" is an example of:
(a) A definition by genus and difference.
(b) A persuasive definition.
(c) A synonymous definition.
(d) An operational definition
Key : C

Q13 : As a lexical definition, the definition "'Keyboard' means a board with keys" may be criticized as:
(a) Being ambiguous.
(b) Failing to indicate the context to which the defines pertains.
(c) Being too broad.
(d) Being circular.
Key : D

Q14 : The following dispute is described as :
Arjun : Logic subject is very easy.
Biju : I have taken the course last semester, but I didn't find it easy at all.
(a) Factual.
(b) Fundamental.
(c) Legal.
(d) Verbal arising from ambiguity
Key : D

Q15 : The below argument is:
Some students are boys.
Someone is not a student.
Therefore, someone is not a boy
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Data is not sufficient
(d) Inductive
Key : B

Q16 : "From where are they bringing their books? __________ bringing ________ books from _________."
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(a) Their, they're, there
(b) They're, their, there
(c) There, their, they're
(d) They're, there, there
Key : B

Q17 : What is the missing number in the following sequence?
2, 12, 60, 240, 720, 1440, ______, 0
(a) 2880
(b) 1440
(c) 720
(d) 0
Key : B

Q18 : Five sentences are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent
paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.
a. But it will soon have plenty of greying company, from wealthy countries such as Finland and South Korea to
developing giants, including China and Russia.
b. They also expect heavier fiscal burdens, with governments providing for more pensioners from a smaller tax base.
c. When it comes to the economic impact of demography, Japan is the wizened canary in the world's coal mine.
d. Economists generally agree that the ageing of populations leads to slower growth, because a country's potential
output tends to fall as its labour force shrinks.
e. It has become older faster than any other big country: its median age went from 34 in 1980 to 46 today, and will
continue rising for decades.
(a) abcde
(b) bcdae
(c) cdeab
(d) ceadb
Key : D

Q19 : In a 155 ml homogenous mixture of liquor, water and soda, the concentration of liquor is highest and that of soda is least. Quantities (in ml) of Soda, water and liquor, which are integers, are in a Geometric Progression, in the given order. 31 ml of solution is withdrawn and replaced with liquor. Now, again 31 ml of solution is withdrawn and replaced with water. What additional amount of water should be mixed to the solution such that concentration of water becomes 40%?
(a) 25 ml
(b) 35 ml
(c) 45 ml
(d) 55 ml
Key : A

Q20 : In a triangle ABC, points P and S are on the sides AB and AC respectively. Points Q, R and T are on the sides BC. If BP :
PA = 1 : 2, BQ : QR : RT : TC = 1 : 1 : 2 : 1, CS : AS = 2 : 1, then find the ratio of the areas of triangles APR and ASR
respectively.
(a) 2:3
(b) 1:3
(c) 4:3
(d) 3:4
Key : C

Q21 : If you place 9 at the left end of a five-digit number you will get a six-digit number. This six-digit number is four-times
the six-digit number that you get when you put 9 at the right end of the original five-digit number. What is the sum of
the digits of the five-digit number?
(a) 18
(b) 27
(c) 17
(d) Data Insufficient
Key : A

Q22 : In how many ways can Rs.18.75 be paid by using exactly 85 coins, comprising at least one coin of each of
denominations of 50 p., 25 p. and 10 p.?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Eight
Key: D

Q23 : The difference between the compound interest, compounded annually, and simple interest earned on an amount at a
certain rate of interest for 2 years is Rs.20 and for 3 years it is Rs.64. Find the value of the amount.
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 500
(d) Cannot be determined
Key: C

Q24 : A survey was conducted in Goa regarding the following electrical/electronics appliances - mobile, TV and AC. The survey
found that
The number of residents owning all three is the same as those owning none.
The number of residents owning any two out of the three appliances is the same (regardless of which two items) and
this is same as those owning none of the three.
The number of residents owning TVs alone is the same as those owning mobiles alone and each in turn is twice those
owning ACs alone.
Half the number of residents who own a AC also own at least one of the other two appliances.
What percentage of the residents who own a mobile, also own at least another appliance?
(a) 66 2/3%
(b) 13 2/3%
(c) 28 4/7%
(d) 33 1/3%
Key : D

Q25 : Read the below paragraph and answer the question.
There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu, Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12 members. There are a few married couples in the family and none of the grand children are married. Sunil is married into the family. Rohan, Mahesh and Jatin have a nephew Dipesh who is the only son of Rashmi. Ravi is the parental grandfather of Nisha. Ritu is the daughter-in-law of Shalini. Renu is the first cousin of Dipesh. Shalini has only three grandchildren. Mahesh has two brothers and only one sister Rashmi and a sister-in-law Divya. Dipesh's only unmarried maternal uncle, Jatin is the brother-in-law of Sunil. Rohan is the parental uncle of Nisha. Ritu has two daughters one of whom is Nisha. How many married couples are there in the second generation ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Key: C

Q26 : Read the below paragraph and answer the question.
There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu, Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12 members. There are a few married couples in the family and none of the grand children are married. Sunil is married into the family. Rohan, Mahesh and Jatin have a nephew Dipesh who is the only son of Rashmi. Ravi is the parental grandfather of Nisha. Ritu is the daughter-in-law of Shalini. Renu is the first cousin of Dipesh. Shalini has only three grandchildren. Mahesh has two brothers and only one sister Rashmi and a sister-in-law Divya. Dipesh's only unmarried maternal uncle, Jatin is the brother-in-law of Sunil. Rohan is the parental uncle of Nisha. Ritu has two daughters one of whom is Nisha. Which one of the following is true?
(a) Dipesh is son of Mahesh
(b) Ravi has only two married children
(c) Ravi is parental grandfather of Renu
(d) None of these
Key : C

Q27 : Read the below paragraph and answer the question There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu, Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12 members. There are a few married couples in the family and none of the grand children are married. Sunil is married into the family. Rohan, Mahesh and Jatin have a nephew Dipesh who is the only son of Rashmi. Ravi is the parental grandfather of Nisha. Ritu is the daughter-in-law of Shalini. Renu is the first cousin of Dipesh. Shalini has only three grandchildren. Mahesh has two brothers and only one sister Rashmi and a sister-in-law Divya. Dipesh's only unmarried maternal uncle, Jatin is the brother-in-law of Sunil. Rohan is the parental uncle of Nisha. Ritu has two daughters one of whom is Nisha. Which of the following is a married couple ? 
(a) Rohan and Ritu 
(b) Shalini and Mahesh
(c) Renu and Sunil 
(d) Mahesh and Ritu
 Key : D

Q28 : Read the below paragraph and answer the questions . Students U, V, X, Y and Z collected Compact Disks (CDs) of old melodious songs. They collected a total of 100 CDs. None of them has collected less than 10 CDs. No two among them collected the same number of CDs. U collected the same number of CDs as V and X put together. X collected 3 more CDs than the cube of an integer. The number of CDs collected by U was the square of an integer The number of CDs collected by V was either the square or the cube of an integer. The number of CDs collected by Y and Z are in the ratio 4 : 3. What was the number of CDs collected by V? 
(a) 16 
(b) 25 
(c) 27 
(d) 64 
Key: B

Q29 : Read the below paragraph and answer the question.
Students U, V, X, Y and Z collected Compact Disks (CDs) of old melodious songs. They collected a total of 100 CDs.
None of them has collected less than 10 CDs. No two among them collected the same number of CDs.
U collected the same number of CDs as V and X put together.
X collected 3 more CDs than the cube of an integer.
The number of CDs collected by U was the square of an integer
The number of CDs collected by V was either the square or the cube of an integer.
The number of CDs collected by Y and Z are in the ratio 4 : 3.
6. What was the difference in the number of CDs collected by X and Y?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 11
Key : A

Q30 : A child has x number of chocolates. If 7 of the chocolates are dark chocolates , 5 of the chocolates were given to the
child by her uncle, 3 of the chocolates are dark chocolates given to the child by her uncle and 4 of the chocolates are
neither dark chocolates nor given to the child by her uncle, what is the value of x?
(a) 13
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) None
Key : A

Q31 : Two NGOs X and Y are raising fund for corona patients. The ratio of amount collected by NGO X to the amount collected
by NGO Y is 7:6. The ratio of number of volunteers in NGO X to the number of volunteers in NGO Y is 2:3. Then the
ratio of the amount collected per volunteer in NGO X to the amount collected per volunteer in NGO Y is
(a) 6:4
(b) 4:6
(c) 4:7
(d) 7:4
Key : D

Passage : The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The current debate on the land law is important because it affords us a chance to reflect more deeply on the nature of India's development process and the experience of democracy for a majority of our citizens. I see the 2013 land law as part of a response - highly belated in my view - to the perception of millions of our people that while India's economy was booming over the last two decades, they were not part of the growth story. Indeed, many people feel that development has happened at their cost. Official estimates place the number of people displaced due to development projects since Independence at 60 million, less than a third of whom have been properly resettled. Most of the displaced are the asset less rural poor, marginal farmers, poor fisherfolk and quarry workers. Around 40 per cent of them are Adivasis and 20 per cent Dalits. Official statistics testify that on all indicators of development, Dalits and Adivasis have been the worst-off groups. Already at the bottom of the development pyramid, being deprived of their land and livelihoods has completely pauperised them, forcing many to move and live in subhuman conditions in our metros. The last two decades have also seen unprecedented agrarian distress, with more than two lakh farmers committing suicide, as per the National Crime Records Bureau. This is something that had never happened before in Indian history. It is in this backdrop that we need to understand the heightened sensitivities and palpable anger over forcible land acquisition. Given that 90 per cent of our coal, more than 50 per cent of most minerals, and prospective dam sites are mainly in Adivasi regions, there has been, and is likely to be, continuing tension over issues of land acquisition. Through these tensions, not only has a question mark been placed over our development strategy, the delicate fabric of Indian democracy has become terribly frayed at the edges. In the remote Adivasi heartlands of India, people feel such a deep and abiding sense of hurt, alienation and cynicism that they have allowed themselves to be helplessly drawn into a terrible vortex of violence and counter-violence, even when they know in their heart of hearts that it will lead to their own destruction. The 2013 land law tried to reach out to these people by undoing a draconian colonial Act more suited to a 19th century empire than to a 21st century vibrant democracy. At the heart of the 2013 law was the provision of seeking the consent of those whose lands were to be acquired and of caring for those whose livelihoods would be destroyed in the process. Undoing these provisions is a virtual resurrection of undiluted powers of 'eminent domain', which the 1894 law conferred on the State. I do not dispute the fact that there can be many situations where land is needed for a development project that could actually benefit those whose lands are being acquired. What could be the possible harm in seeking the prior, informed consent of these people, after making the effort of explaining to them how they would stand to benefit? There are those who argue that farmers would be better off giving up farming. Indeed, they say that farmers do not want to farm any more. Why would these farmers conceivably say no if we were to propose more attractive and tangible alternative options to them in return for their land? Is it not for farmers to assess whether the project will actually be of benefit to them and whether the recompense offered to them is a fair bargain?

Q32 : Which of the following options would the author most agree with?
(a) India cannot continue with a pattern of industry that generates so few jobs but has such a large displacement outcome.
(b) India's development has been at the cost of the marginal farmer who has never received adequate compensation for the
price of progress.
(c) The land law debate must be the occasion to talk about key national agendas.
(d) Displacement of individuals is part of the story of any developmental thrust.
Key : A

Q33 : It can be inferred that when the author refers to "eminent domain" he means
(a) The provision to seek consent from those whose lands were to be acquired.
(b) The power of the State to acquire land forcibly from the owners of private property.
(c) The inevitability that the land owned by people would eventually be up for acquisition by the state.
(d) Land has more eminent and powerful uses when it is acquired for government use.
Key : B

Q34 : Which of the following options would go against the argument in the passage?
(a) Determining the Social Impact of a project can help the government understand if a proposed project is necessary.
(b) Many people are rightly concerned about the cost of the decisions taken in development projects.
(c) If we want to acquire the land of farmers to serve larger goals, the projects in which they are embodied must not be of
the kinds that repeat the mistakes of the past.
(d) The last two decades have seen a man made agrarian crisis that has been unprecedented.
Key : D

Q35 : Which of the following options is the best solution that the author seems to suggest at the end of the passage?
(a) The government must listen to farmers and allow them to suggest solutions to land acquisition issues.
(b) Social provisions must be made for those farmers who are to be affected by the land acquisition policies of the
government.
(c) The compensation to farmers must be commensurate to the cost that they incur as a result of giving up their land.
(d) Malpractices in land acquisition should be checked with the setting up of a regulatory body.
Key : A

Q36 : Who is the father of Geometry?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Euclid
(c) Pythagoras
(d) Kepler
Key: B
 

Q37 : What is common between Kutty, Shankar, Laxman and Sudhir Dar?
(a) Film Direction
(b) Drawing Cartoons
(c) Instrumental Music
(d) Classical Dance
Key: B

Q38 : Who was known as Iron man of India?
(a) Govind Ballabh Pant
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Key : D

Q39 : Lai Haraoba Festival is observed by which state
(a) Sikkim
(b) Tripura
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
Key : B

Q40 : Which port is renamed as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee port?
(a) Kolkata Port
(b) Chennai Port
(c) Paradip Port
(d) Visakhapatnam Port
Key : A

Q41 : Who became fastest Indian Spinner to claim 100 wickets ODI ?
(a) Ravichandran Ashwin
(b) Ravindra Jadeja
(c) Kuldeep Yadav
(d) Yuzvendra Chahal
Key : C

Q42 : Which state passes a bill to propose 3 capitals for State?
(a) Telangana
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Key : D

Q43 : Which city is declared as the Summer capital of Uttarahand?
(a) Deharadun
(b) Nainital
(c) Gairsain
(d) Joshimath
Key: C

Q44 : The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
(a) Ramanujam
(b) Rina Panigrahi
(c) Raja Ramanna
(d) Shakunthala Devi
Key : D

Q45 : Film and TV institute of India is located at
(a) Pune (Maharashtra)
(b) Rajkot (Gujarat)
(c) Pimpri (Maharashtra)
(d) Perambur (Tamilnadu)
Key : A

Q46 : Which among the following is a pyrrolidinyl- phenothiazine derivative used as an antihistamine?
(a) Promethazine
(b) Trimeprazine
(c) Methdilazine
(d) Alimemazine
Key: C

Q47 : List of minimum equipments for the efficient running of a pharmacy is provided in
(a) Schedule N
(b) Schedule M
(c) Schedule H
(d) Schedule X
Key : A

Q48 :
In geriatrics drug therapy, absorption of acidic drugs such as barbiturates is decreased due to
(a) Decreased gastrointestinal motility
(b) Decreased muscle mass
(c) Decreased bone density
(d) Increased blood pressure
Key : A

Q49 : Which of the following statements is not true for the manufacture of alcoholic preparations can be done "in bond"?
(a) License is required.
(b) Construction of bonded lab., as per law.
(c) Excise duty payable on removal of goods from bonded lab.
(d) Bonded lab., need not function under excise staff.
Key : D

Q50 : Which of the following statements is not considered as Opium derivative?
(a) Phenanthrene alkaloids, morphine,thebaine,codeine and their salts
(b) Diacetyl morphine or heroin and its salts
(c) Prepared opium, that is, any product of opium by any series of operations designed to transform opium into ar extract
suitable for smoking and the dross or other residue remaining after Opium is smoked .
(d) All preparations containing less than 0.2 per cent of morphine or containing any diacetyl morphine
Key : D

Q51 : Who among the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy council of India?
(a) Director of Central Drugs laboratory established under Drugs & Cosmetics Act.
(b) Director General of Health Services of Govt. of India.
(c) Drugs Controller General of India having administrative control over matters related drugs.
(d) Chairman, University Grants Commission.
Key : D

Q52 : National regulatory body for " removal or correction of marketed products (pharmaceuticals and medical devices ) in
India for the reasons relating to deficiencies in quality, safety or efficacy, including labeling considered to be in violation
of the laws" in India is
(a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
(b) Bureau of Indian standards
(c) Medical council of India
(d) Indian pharmacopoeial Commission
Key: A

Q53 : In moist heat sterilization the minimum holding time for sterilization at 121 degree centigrade is-
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 05 minutes
Key : B

Q54 : The process by which all viable forms of microorganisms( including spores), are removed or destroyed is known as-
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(a) Pasteurization
(b) Sterilization
(c) Disinfection
(d) Tyndalization
Key : B

Q55 : The disintegration time of uncoated compressed tablet is
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 45 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 120 minutes
Key : A

Q56 : The transport of drugs through the skin using a combination of ultrasound therapy with topical drug therapy is known
as
(a) Transdermal drug delivery system
(b) Osmotic drug delivery system
(c) Iontophoresis
(d) phonophoresis
Key : C

Q57 : 
The rate and extent to which an active drug ingredient is absorbed from a drug product and becomes available at the
site of action is termed as
(a) Biotransformation
(b) Bioavailability
(c) Bioequivalence
(d) Drug Elimination
Key : B

Q58 : The onset of drug action depends on the rate of
(a) Drug dispersion
(b) Drug distribution
(c) Drug absorption
(d) Drug elimination
Key : C

Q59 : A medical problem that requires drug therapy is being treated with a less- than-optimal drug. is categorized as (under
reasons for drug related problems)
(a) Underprescribing
(b) Inadequate monitoring
(c) Inappropriate treatment
(d) Inappropriate drug selection
Key : D

Q60 : Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in pregnancy because it produces gray baby syndrome?
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Chloramphenicol
Key : D

Q61 : Pharmaceutical Product recall situation, in which the use of, or exposure to, a defective product may cause temporary
adverse health consequences or where the probability of serious adverse health consequences is remote is classified as
(a) Class -I
(b) Class -II
(c) Class -III
(d) Type-C
Key : B

Q62 : Dry heat sterilization method is ideal for the sterilization of -
(a) Surgical dressing
(b) Rubber and plastic material
(c) Oily injection
(d) Aqueous Injection
Key : C

Q63 : Sterilization by using ethylene oxide is very effective in concentration between
(a) 200 mg to 1g/L
(b) 10 mg to 1g/L
(c) 1 mg to 2 g/L
(d) 200 mg to 2 g/L
Key : A

Q64 : The substances used for the reduction of the interparticular friction in granules during tablet compression are known as
(a) Lubricants
(b) Glidants
(c) Disintegrants
(d) Binders
Key : A

Q65 : Cellacefate, a commonly used polymer phthalate is used in the formulation of
(a) Rectal capsules
(b) Ophthalmic capsules
(c) Enteric coated capsules
(d) Uncoated compressed tablets
Key : C

Q66 : The most efficient gelling agent in the category of carbopol resins that forms sparkling clear hydroalcoholic gels is
(a) Carbomer 910
(b) Carbomer 934
(c) Carbomer 934 P
(d) Carbomer 940
Key : D

Q67 : The passage of drug molecules through a membrane that does not actively participate in the process is termed as
(a) Active transport
(b) Passive diffusion
(c) Facilitated diffusion
(d) Pinocytosis
Key : B

Q68 : A drugs half life is directly proportional to the
(a) Total body clearance
(b) Volume of distribution
(c) Hepatic metabolism
(d) Renal clearance
Key : B

Q69 : Absorption of radiation in the Ultra-violet range attributable to non-bonding orbital to antibonding pi- electronic
transitions is characteristic of which of the following types of compounds?
(a) Non-conjugated polyene
(b) Aromatic hydrocarbon
(c) Unsaturated carbonyl compound
(d) Conjugated polyenes
Key : C

Q70 : In Gas chromatography, a trifluoropropylmethyl polysiloxane column is often refered to as-
(a) G6
(b) G8
(c) G14
(d) G16
Key : A

Q71 : Chemically, an antimalarial Artemisinin is an analogue of ?
(a) 1,2-benzodioxepin-10(3H)-one
(b) 1,2-benzodiazepin-10(3H)-one
(c) 1,2-benzothiopen-10(3H)-one
(d) 1,2-benzothioxepin-10(3H)-one
Key : A

Q72 : Nomenclature of Dexamethasone shows methyl groups attached at-
(a) C-10, C-13, C-16
(b) C-18, C-19, C-16
(c) C-10, C-13, C-17
(d) C-18, C-19, C-17
Key : A

Q73 : In Biotin, the substituent attached to one of the carbon atoms of the tetrahydrothiophene moiety is:
(a) Isocaproic acid
(b) Valeric acid
(c) Butanoic acid
(d) Hexanoic acid
Key : B

Q74 : Human insulin protein is composed of___?
(a) 49 amino acids, and has a molecular mass of 5808 Da
(b) 51 amino acids, and has a molecular mass of 5808 Da
(c) 49 amino acids, and has a molecular mass of 5303 Da
(d) 51 amino acids, and has a molecular mass of 5303 Da
Key : B

Q75 : Most bioactive form of Chloramphenicol is_
(a) D (-) Threo
(b) L (-) Threo
(c) D (-) Erythro
(d) L (-) Erythro
Key : A