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National Eligibility Test : CSIR - NET Dec 2015 questions with Answer keys (Life Sciences)

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PART 'A'

1. In each of the following groups of words is a hidden number, based on which you should arrange them in descending order. Pick the correct answer:
E. Papers I Xeroxed
F. Wi-Fi veteran
G. Yourself ourselves
H. Breaks even
1. H, F, G, H
2. E, G, F, H
3. H, F, G, E
4. H, E, F, G

2. The number of squares in the above figure is
1. 30
2. 29
3. 25
4. 20

3. A shopkeeper purchases a product for Rs.100 and sells it making a profit of 10%. The customer resells it to the same shopkeeper incurring a loss of 10%. In these dealings the shopkeeper makes
1. no profit, no loss
2. Rs. 11
3. Re. 1
4. Rs. 20

4.Five congruent rectangles are drawn inside a big rectangle of perimeter 165 as shown. What is the perimeter of one of the five rectangles?

1. 37
2. 75
3. 15
4. 165

5. A person walks downhill at 10 km/h, uphill at 6 km/h and on the plane at 7.5 km/h. If the person takes 3 hours to go from a place A to another place B, and 1 hour on the way back, the distance between A and B is
1. 15 km.
2. 23.5 km.
3. 16 km.
4. Given data is insufficient to calculate the distance.

6. A vessel is partially filled with water. More water is added to it at a rate directly propor-tional to time Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the varia-tion of total volume V of water with time t?

7. At one instant, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock are one over the other in between the markings for 5 and 6 on the dial. At this instant, the tip of the minute hand
1. is closer to the marking for 6
2. is equidistant from the markings for 5 and 6
3. is closer to marking for 5
4. is equidistant from the markings for 11 and 12

8. A bird leaves its nest and flies away. Its distance x from the nest is plotted as a function of time t. Which of the following plots cannot be right?

9. A cubical cardboard box made of 1 cm thick card board has outer side of 29 cm.  A tight - fitting cubical box of the same thickness is placed inside it, then another one inside it and so on. How many cubical boxes will be there in the entire set?
1.29
2.28
3.15
4.14

10. Secondary colours are made by a mixture of three primary colours, Red, Green and Blue, in different proportions; each of the primary colours comes in 8 possible levels. Grey corresponds to equal proportions of Red, Green and Blue. How many shades of grey exist in this scheme?
1. 83
2. 8
3. 38
4. 8*3

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11. The triangle formed by the lines y=x, y=1-x and x=0 in a two dimensional plane is (x and y axes have the same scale)
1. isosceles and right-angled
2. isosceles but not right-angled
3. right-angled but not isosceles
4. neither isosceles nor right-angled

12. There are two buckets A and B. Initially A has 2 litres of water and B is empty. At every hour 1 litre of water is transferred from A to B followed by returning 1/2 litre back to A from B half an hour later. The earliest A will get empty is in:
1. 5 h
2. 4 h
3. 3 h
4. 2 h

13. Statement A. The following statement is true Statement B. The preceding statement is false. Choose the correct inference from the following:
1. Statements A and B are always true
2. Statements A and B can be true if there is at least one statement between A and B
3. Statements A and B can be true if there are at least two statements between A and B
4. Statements A and B can never be true, independently.

14. A car is moving at 60 km/h. The instantan-eous velocity of the upper most points of its wheels is
1. 60 km/h forward
2. 120 km/h forward
3. 60 km/h backward
4. 120 km/h backward

15. If D + I + M = 1501
C+ I + V + I + L = 157
L + I + V + I + D = 557
C +I + V+ I + C = 207
What is V + I + M = ?
1. Cannot be found
2. 1009
3. 1006
4. 509

16. A living cell has a protoplasm which is water based and demarcated by a lipid bilayer membrane. If a cell is pierced up to1/5 th of its diameter with a very sharp needle, after taking the needle out
1. no effect will be observed.
2. protoplasm will leak out from the hole made by the needle for a few minutes until the cell heals the wound.
3. protoplasm will keep on leaking out till the cell is dead.
4. the cell will burst like a balloon.

17. 17. Density of a rice grain is 1.5 g/cc and bulk density of rice heap is 0.80 g/cc. If a 1 litre container is completely filled with rice, what will be the approximate volume of pore space in the container?
1. 350 cc
2. 465 cc
3. 550 cc
4. 665 cc

18. A turtle starts swimming from a point A located on the circumference of a circular pond. After swimming for 4 meters in a straight line it hits point B on the circum-ference of the pond. From there it changes direction and swims for 3 meters in a straight line and arrives at point D diametrically opposite to point A. How far is point D from A?
1. 3 m
2. 4 m
3. 7 m
4. 5 m

19. Four circles of unit radius each are drawn such that each one touches two others and their centres lie on the vertices of a square. The area of the region enclosed between the circles is

20. A film projector and microscope give equal magnification. But a film projector is not used to see living cells because
1. a living cell cannot be placed in a film projector.
2. the viewer’s eye is close to a microscope whereas it is far away from the projector’s screen.
3. a microscope produces a virtual image whereas a projector produces a real image.
4. a microscope has greater resolving power than a projector.

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PART 'B'

21. The ionic strength of a 0.2 MNa2HPO4 solution will be
1. 0.2 M
2. 0.4 M
3. 0.6 M
4. 0.8 M

22. A cell line deficient in salvage pathway for nucleotide biosynthesis was fed with medium containing 15N labelled amino acids. Purines were then extracted. Treatment with which one of the following amino acids is likely to produce 15N labelled purines?
1. Aspartic acid
2. Glycine
3. Glutamine
4. Aspartamine

23. Enzymes accelerate a reaction by which one of the following strategies?
1. Decreasing energy required to form the transition state.
2. Increasing kinetic energy of the substrate.
3. Increasing the free energy difference between substrate and the product.
4. Increasing the turn over number of enzymes.

24. Coupling of the reaction centers of oxidative phosphorylation is achieved by which one of the following?
1. Making a complex of all four reaction centers.
2. Locating all four complexes in the inner membrane.
3. Ubiquinones and cytochrome C.
4. Pumping of protons.

25. The genome of a bacterium is composed of a single DNA molecule which is 109 bp long. How many moles of genomic DNA is present in the bacterium? [Consider

26. It takes 40 minutes for a typical E. coli cell to completely replicate its chromosome. Simultaneous to the ongoing replication, 20 minutes of a fresh round of replication is completed before the cell divides. What would be the generation time of E. coli growing at 37c c in complex medium?
1. 20 minutes
2. 40 minutes
3. 60 minutes
4. 30 minutes

27. Glycophorin having one highly hydrophobic domain is able to span a phospholipid bilayer membrane only
1. once
2. twice
3. thrice
4. four times

28. Given below are events in the cell cycle. (a) Phosphorylation of lamin A, B, C (b) Phosphorylation of Rb (Retinoblastoma protein) (c) Polyubiquitination of securin (d) Association of inner nuclear membrane proteins and nuclear pore complex proteins with chromosomes. Which one of the following reflects the correct sequence of events in the mammalian cell cycle?

29. Which one of the following chemicals is a DNA intercalator?
1. 5-Bromouracil
2. Ethyl methane sulfonate
3. Acridine orange
4. UV

30. An antibiotic that resembles the 3’end of a charged tRNA molecule is:
1. Streptomycin
2. Sparsomycin
3. Puromycin
4. Tetracycline

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31.    a-Amanitin is a fungal toxin which inhibits eukaryotic RNA polymerases. The three eukaryotic RNA polymerases show differential sensitivity to this toxin. Which one of the following order (higher to lower) is correct in respect of sensitivity towards a- amanitin?
1.    RNA POL III > RNA POL II > RNA POL I
2.    RNA POL II > RNA POL III > RNA POL I
3.    RNA POL I > RNA POL III > RNA POL II
4.    RNA POL II > RNA POL I > RNA POL III

32. In eukaryotic replication, helicase loading occurs at all replicators during
1.    G0 phase 2.    G1 phase
3.    S phase 4.    G2 phase

33. Cytotoxic T cells express
1. CD8 marker and are class II MHC
    restricted
2.    CD4 marker and are class I MHC
    restricted
3. CD4 marker and are class II MHC
    restricted
4.    CD8 marker and are class I MHC
    restricted

34. The mutation in an oncogene falls under which of the following classes?
1.    Loss of function mutation
2.    Frame shift mutation
3.    Gain of function mutation
4.    Dominant negative mutation

35. Which of the following is NOT a cell adhesion protein?
1.    Cadherin
2.    Selectin
3.    Immunoglobulin (Ig) superfamily
4.    Laminin

36. Which of the following is NOT a second messenger?
1.    Cyclic GMP
2.    Diacylglycerol
3.    Inositol triphosphate
4.    Phosphatidyl inositol

37. In chick, development of wing feather, thigh feather and claws depends on epithelial specificity conferred by induction from mesenchymal components from different sources of the dermins. This may be attributed to?
1.    Autocrine interaction
2.    Regional specificity of induction
3.    Receptor activation by hormones
4.    Inactivation of genetic interactions

38. Alveolar cells of the lung arise from which one of the following layer(s)?
1.    Mesoderm
2.    Endoderm
3.    Ectoderm
4.    Both ectoderm and endoderm

39. Migration of individual cells from the surface into the embryo’s interior is termed as
1.    ingression    2. involution
3.    invagination    4. delamination

40. Floral organ development is controlled by overlapping expression of ‘A’ class, ‘B’ class and ‘C’ class genes in different whorls. In an Arabidopsis mutant, the flowers had sepals, sepals, carpels and carpels in the four whorls. Mutation in which one of the following is the cause for the mutant phenotype?
1.    ‘A’ class gene alone
2.    ‘B’ class gene alone
3.    ‘A’ and ‘B’ class genes
4.    ‘C’ class gene alone

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41.    Phenylalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which one of the following pathways?
1.    Shikimic acid pathway
2.    Malonic acid pathway
3.    Mevalonic acid pathway
4.    Methylerythritol pathway

42.    For which one of the following physiolo-gical studies 12CO2 and 13CO2 are used?
1.    Estimate the rate of photosynthesis
2.    Determine rate of photorespiration
3.    The ratio of C4 and CAM pathways of CO2 fixation
4.    The ratio of C3 and C4 pathways of CO2 fixation

43. Gibberellic acid (GA) controls seed germination by directing breakdown of the stored starch. In which one of the following tissues of the barley seed, - amylase gene is induced in response to GA?
1. Endosperm    2. Coleoptile
3. Aleurone layer    4. Embryo

44.    The photosynthetic assimilation of atmospheric CO2 by leaves yield sucrose and starch as end products of two gluconeogenic pathways that are physically separated. Which one of the following combination of cell organelles are involved in such physical separation of the process?
1.    Sucrose in cytosol and starch in mitochondria.
2.    Sucrose in chloroplasts and starch in cytosol.
3.    Sucrose in mitochondria and starch in cytosol.
4.    Sucrose in cytosol and starch in chloroplasts.

45.  A diabetic patient developed metabolic acidosis resulting in deep and rapid breathing which is called-
1.    Kussmaul breathing
2.    Cheyne-Stokes respiratory pattern
3.    Apneustic breathing
4.    Periodic breathing

46.  Which one of the following is NOT
involved with the pacemaker potential of heart?
1.    “h”- channel
2.    Transient calcium channel
3.    Long-lasting calcium channel
4.    “f”- channel

47.  You are asked to identify the stage of estrus cycle in vaginal smear of a mouse containing large number of leukocytes and very few nucleated epithelial cells. Which one of the following will be the correct stage of estrous cycle?
1.    Early estrus, late proestrus
2.    Late estrus, early metestrus
3.    Late metestrus, early diestrus
4.    Late diestrus, early proestrus

48.  Which one of the following neurotrans¬mitters is secreted by the pre-ganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system?
1.    Epinephrine
2.    Acetylcholine
3.    Dopamine
4.    Norepinephrine

49.    Following is a hypothetical biochemical pathway responsible for pigmentation of leaves. The pathway is controlled by two independently assorting genes ‘A and ‘B’ encoding enzymes as shown below. Mutant alleles ‘a’ and ‘b’ code for nonfunctional proteins.

What is the expected progeny after selfing a plant with the genotype AaBb ?
1.    Green (9): White (4): Yellow (3)
2.    Green (9): Yellow (4): White (3)
3.    Green (9): Yellow (6): White (1)
4.    Green (9): White (7)

50. Mutation in gene ‘X leads to lethality in a haploid organism. Which one of thefollowing is best suited to analyse the function of gene ‘X? 
1.    Pleiotropic mutants
2.    Temperature-sensitive mutants
3.    Recessive mutants
4.    Mutants with low penetrance

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51.


The trait can be called
1.    autosomal dominant
2.    autosomal recessive
3.    X-linked dominant
4.    sex limited

52.    In a heterozygous individual for a given gene, if a crossing over has occurred between the gene locus and the centromere of the chromosome, the segregation of the two alleles of the given gene will occur during meiosis at
1.    either anaphase I or anaphase II
2.    anaphase I only
3.    anaphase II only
4.    both anaphase I and II

53.    Most members of bryophyte phylum Anthocerophyta are characterized by
1.    gametophyte with single chloroplast per cell and multicellular rhizoids; sporophyte without stomata.
2.    gametophyte with single chloroplast per cell and unicellular rhizoids; sporophyte with stomata.
3.    gametophyte with multiple chloroplasts per cell and unicellular rhizoids; sporophyte without stomata.
4.    gametophyte with single chloroplast per cell and multicellular rhizoids; sporophyte with stomata.

54.    Identify the correct match between the animal (flatworm, earthworm, roundworm) and its body cavity type (acoelomate, coelomate, pseudo- coelomate):
1.    Roundworm - pseudocoelomate;
Earthworm - acoelomate; Flatworm
-    coelomate
2.    Roundworm - acoelomate;
Earthworm - coelomate; Flatworm - acoelomate
3.    Roundworm - pseudocoelomate;
Earthworm - coelomate; Flatworm - acoelomate
4.    Roundworm -coelomate; Earthworm
-    pseudocoelomate; Flatworm - acoelomate

55.    Which one of the following gymnosperm phyla produces motile sperms, bears ovulate and microsporangiate cones on separate plants and has fleshy, coated seeds?
1. Coniferophyta    2. Cycadophyta
3. Ginkgophyta    4. Gnetophyta

56.    According to 2014 IUCN Red List, which of the following vertebrate classes has the largest percentage of threatened species?
1.    Mammals    2. Birds
3.    Reptiles    4. Amphibians

57.    In the following equations

exponential population growth is described by
1.    a and b.    2. a only.
3.    c only.    4. b and d.

58.    Which gas does NOT contribute to global warming through its greenhouse effect?
1.    Nitrous oxide
2.    Methane
3.    Carbon dioxide
4.    Nitric oxide

59.    A red coloured tubular flower without any odour is most likely to be pollinated by
1.    beetles.    2. bees.
3.    butterflies.    4. birds.

60.    Which one of the following conditions is NOT likely to favour male monogamy?
1.    When the male has to guard his mate against mating by another male.
2.    When the male wants to spend more time for foraging.
3.    When the male has to assist the mate in brood and nestling care.
4.    When the female guards her mate against seeking other females to mate.

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61.  The origin and diversification of Angio- sperms was during which geological period?
1. Permian    2. Triassic
3. Jurassic    4. Cretaceous

62. Which of the following statements about evolution is NOT true?
1.    Evolution is the product of natural selection.
2.    Evolution is goal-oriented.
3.    Prokaryotes evolve faster than eukaryotes.
4.    Evolution need not always lead to a better phenotype.

63. Which among the following is the simplest method to estimate the concentration of glycerol in an aqueous solution of glycerol?
1.   UV absorption spectroscopy
2.   Gas chromatography
3.   pH measurement
4. Viscosity measurement

64.  Application of gene therapy in clinical trials did NOT succeed due to
1.    poor integration of a gene in the host genome
2.    lack of expression of integrated gene in cells
3.    degradation of gene inside the cell
4.    activation of oncogenes consequent to integration of the gene

65. A gene expressing a 50 kDa protein from an eukaryote was cloned in an E. coli plasmid under the lac promoter and operator. Upon addition of IPTG, the 50 kDa protein was not detected. Which one of the following explains the above observation?
1.    The cloned sequence lacked the Kozak sequence
2.    E coli does not make proteins larger than 40 kDa
3.    Differences in codon preference
4.    50 kDa protein contains a nuclear localization signal

66. Neomycin phosphortransferase gene, frequently used as a selection marker during plant trans-formation, inactivates which one of the following antibiotics?
1. Hygromycin    2. Ampicillin
3. Streptomycin    4. Kanamycin

67.  Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000 differentially expressed genes in normal and tumor tissues in one single experiment?
1.   RAPD
2.   Genome sequencing
3.   ChIP assay
4.   Transcriptome analysis

68.  For identification of three proteins moving together (as a single band) upon loading in a single lane of a SDS-PAGE gel, the best method is:
1.    one step Western blot
2.    NMR spectroscopy
3.    Western blot followed by stripping and reprobing
4.    ESR spectroscopy

69. Which isotope below is best suited for metabolic labelling of glyceraldehyde-3- phospho-dehydrogenase?
1. 14C
2. 125I
3. 32P
4. 131I

70. Which one of the following would contribute to intrinsic fluorescence to a protein?
1.    aromatic amino acids
2.    disulfide bonds
3.    charged amino acids
4.    branched chain amino acids

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71. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1.   In all L-amino acids, only the C“ carbon atom is chiral
2.  Deoxyribose is optically inactive
3.  The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D- glucose and D-fructose
4. Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active

72. Membrane proteins are synthesized on endoplasmic reticulum and transported to various organelle membranes. One hypothesis for membrane protein sorting is hydrophobicity matching i.e., the proteins with a shorter transmembrane portion would partition into thinner membranes.
You are given the following three observations
A. It was found that transmembrane portions of proteins in Golgi membranes are shorter than those in plasma membranes
B. Presence of cholesterol increases the thickness of the bilayer
C.  The phospholipid composition of Golgi and plasma membranes are same
Which one of the following statements is correct?
1.  Proteins in plasma membrane have longer transmembrane portion than proteins in Golgi membranes
2. Proteins in Golgi membranes have longer transmembrane portion than proteins in plasma membranes
3. Proteins of both Golgi and plasmame- mbranes have same length of transmembrane portion
4. Cholesterol is more in Golgi membrane than in plasma membrane

73. Four single amino acid mutants (a to d) of a protein in the epitope-region of a monoclonal antibody X were made and expressed in E. coli. The lysates from the four E. coli cultures expressing these four proteins were run or an SDS-PAGE gel and subsequently transferred to nitrocellulose membrane and Western blotted using a monoclonal antibody X raised against the wild type protein. The results are presented in the figure below

Load control
The four single mutation, upon sequencing, were found to be Valine (V) to Alanine (A); Glycine (G) to Proline (P); Alanine (A) to Aspartic acid (D) and isoleucine (I) to leucine (L).
Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. b is due to V —— A and c is due to G ——P
2. b is due to G —— P and d is due to V ——A
3. d is due to I —— L and a is due to A ——D
4. c is due to V —— A and a is due to I —— L

74. The exact backbone dihedral angles in a folded protein can be obtained by
1. deconvolution of its circular dichroism spectra obtained at different pH and temperature
2.  estimating the number of protons that exchange with deuterium on treating the protein with D2O
3.  forming fibres of the protein and analyzing the fibre diffraction pattern
4.  analysis of the crystal structure of the protein obtained by X-ray diffraction at high resolutions

75. The following are the statements about pyruvate kinase (PK).
A.   ATP is an allosteric inhibitor of PK
B.  Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate is an activator of PK
C.   ADP is an allosteric inhibitor of PK
D.   Alanine is an allosteric modulator of PK
Which of the above statement(s) are true?
1. A, B, C    
2. A, B, D
3.  B, C, D  
 4. only A

76.  A practical class was going on where the students were demonstrating ATP synthesis in vitro using active mitochondria. Some students added one of the following to their tubes
A. Dinitrophenol (DNP), an uncoupler
B. Mild acidification of the medium
C. Glutilferone, that permeabilizes both the membranes
D.  An outer membrane permeable H+ quencher compound, Elila
In which one of the above, ATP synthesis will be detected?
1. A    
2. B
3. C    
4. D

77. A culture medium contains two carbon sources, one is preferred carbon source (glucose) and the second is a non-preferred source (lactose).
Which one below is correct regarding the nature of growth curve of E. coli cultured in this medium?
1.   Growth curve will be same as when grown in presence of only glucose.
2.   Growth curve will be same as when grown in presence of only lactose.
3.   A lag phase will be observed between the two exponential phases.
4.   Two lag phases will be observed between the two exponential phases.

78.Which one of the following statements correctly applies to proteins which are translated on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
1. Cytoplasmic proteins which are targeted to the nucleus in response to hormone stimuli.
2.  Proteins targeted to lysosomes, plasma membrane and cell exterior.
3.   Proteins which are targeted to the nucleus through endoplasmic reticulum lumen as the lumen is in direct connection with the inter membrane space of the nucleus .
4.  All proteins which get targeted to peroxisomes.

79. Lipid rafts are rich in both sphingolipids and cholesterol. Cholesterol plays a central role in raft formation since lipid rafts apparently do not form in its absence. Why do you think cholesterol is essential for the formation of lipid rafts?
1.  Cholesterol decreases the mobility of sphingolipids in the lipid bilayer.
2.   Large head groups of sphingolipids repel each other in presence of cholesterol.
3.   Cholesterol interacts with fatty acid tails in the membrane.
4.  The planar cholesterol molecules are postulated to fill the voids that form underneath the large head groups of the sphingolipids.

80. Following is the domain organization of three proteins that are targeted to the mitochondria.

Based on the domain organization in the above figure and assuming the left box to be having the mitochondrial sorting signal, predict the most likely sub-compartment of the mitochondria in which the protein will be found.
1. A in matrix; B in inner membrane; C in  inter - membrane space 
2. A in inner membrane; B in inter - membrane space; C in outer membrane 
3. A and B are in matrix; C in outer  membrane
4. A in matrix; B and C are in inter - membrane space

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81.You have labelled DNA in a bacterium by growing cells in medium containing either 14N nitrogen or the heavier isotope, 15N. Furthermore, you have isolated pure DNA from these organisms, and subjected it to CsCl density gradient centrifugation leading to their separation of light (14N) and heavy (15N) forms of DNA to different locations in the centrifuge tube. In the next experiment, bacteria were grown first in medium containing 15N, so that all the DNA made by cells will be in heavy form. Then these cells were transferred to medium containing only 14N and allowed the cells to divide for one generation. DNAs were extracted and centrifuged as above in the CsCl gradient. A hybrid DNA band was observed at a position located between and equidistant from the 15N and 14N DNA bands. Based on the above observation, which one of the following conclusions is correct?
1.    Replication of DNA is conservative
2.    Replication of DNA is semi-conservative
3.    Replication of DNA is dispersive
4.    Replication by rolling circle mode

82. The frequency of cells in a population that are undergoing mitosis (the mitotic index) is a convenient way to estimate the length of the cell cycle. In order to measure the cell cycle in the liver of the adult mouse by measuring the mitotic index, liver slices are prepared and stained to easily identify cells undergoing mitosis. It was observed that only 3 out of 25,000 cells are found to
be undergoing mitosis. Assuming that M phase lasts 30 minutes, calculate the approximate length of the cell cycle in the liver of an adult mouse?
1. 76 hours    
2. 50 hours
3.  42 hours    
4. 21 hours

83. Although ribonucleoside triphosphates (rNTPs) are present at approximately 10-fold higher concentration than deoxyribo- nucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) in the cell, but they are incorporated into DNA at a rate that is more than 1000-fold lower than dNTPs. This is because
1. DNA polymerase cannot discriminate between dNTPs and rNTPs. But as soon as rNTPs are incorporated in the DNA chain, they are hydrolyzed due to the presence of 2'-OH group.
2.  DNA polymerase cannot discriminate between dNTPs and rNTPs. But as soon
as rNTPs are incorporated in the DNA chain, they are excised by the proof reading activity of DNA polymerase.
3.  DNA polymerase efficiently discriminates between rNTPs and dNTPs, because its nucleotide binding pocket cannot accommodate a 2'-OH on the incoming nucleotide.
4.  DNA polymerase cannot discriminate between rNTPs and dNTPs. Since the rate of transcription in cell is 106 times faster than replication, it cannot compete with RNA polymerase for rNTPs.

84. The mismatch repair activity of E.coli repairs misincorporated bases which is not removed by the proofreading activity of DNA polymerase. However, while doing so, it has to decide which strand of the DNA is newly synthesized and which one is parental. Mismatch repair system does it by which one of the following ways?
1.    It recognizes nearby GATC sequence.
2.    It recognizes any nearby palindromic sequence.
3.    It recognises a specific repetitive sequence.
4.    It recognises the hemi-methylated GATC sequence nearby.

85.    Enlisted below are different types of RNAs produced in the cell (Column A) and their functions (Column B), but not in the same order.


Choose the correct combination
1.    A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
2.    A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
3.    A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
4.    A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

86. In prokaryotes, the initiatior t-RNA is first charged with a methionine, followed by the addition of a formyl group to the methionine by the enzyme Met-tRNA transformylase. Given below are several statements in this context.
A.   All prokaryotic proteins have formyl methionine at their amino-terminal end.
B.  Deformylase removes the formyl group from the amino terminal methionine.
C.  All prokaryotic proteins have methionine at their amino terminal end.
D.  Aminopeptidases often remove the amino terminal methionine.
E.   Aminopeptidases remove amino terminal formyl methionine.
Which of the above statement(s) are most likely to be true?
1. A only    
2. B and C
3. E only    
4. B and D

87.  A hypothetical operon involved in the synthesis of an amino acid ‘X’ is ‘ON’ (transcribing) in the presence of low levels of ‘X’ and ‘OFF’ (not transcribing) in presence of high level of ‘X’. The symbols a, b and c (in the table below) represents a structural gene for the synthesis of X (X- synthase), the operator region and gene encoding the repressor- but not necessarily in that order. From the following data, in which superscripts denote wild type or defective genotype, identify which are the genes for X-synthase, operator region and the repressor.    

1. A only    
2. B and C
3. E only    
4. B and D

88. A protein has 4 equally spaced trypsin sensitive sites which results in peptide fragments A1, A2, A3, A4 and A5 upon digestion with trypsin. The peptides A2 and A5 represents N-terminal and C-terminal fragments respectively. Now you are asked to synthesise this protein. At time t = 0 you added all the 20 amino acids labelled with 14C and initiated the synthesis. At time t = 4, full length protein is synthesized. If you stop the synthesis of the protein in time t = 1 and digest the protein with trypsin, which peptide will have maximum 14C label than others?
1.    A3    
2.    A1
3.    A4    
4.    A2

89.  Which one of the following statements about the nuclear receptor superfamily is NOT true?
1. The receptors are always cytosolic, where they remain associated with heat-shock proteins and have variable ligand binding domains in the N-terminal region.
2.  The receptors have characteristic repeat of the C4 zinc-finger motif
3. The receptors are either homodimeric or heterodimeric, and in the absence of their hormone ligand, the heterodimeric receptors repress transcription, when bound to their response elements.
4.  The receptors have a unique N-terminal region of variable length and may contain a nuclear localization signal between the DNA- and ligand-binding domains.

90. Physical attachment between cells is very important in imparting strength in tissues. Various physical cell junctions in vertebrate epithelial tissues are classified according to their primary functions. Enlisted below in column A is the major function of a particular junction and column B enlists cell junctions, but not in the same order.
 
Choose the correct combination
1.    A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
2.    A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
3.    A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
4.    A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)

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91.  G-protein coupled receptors (GPCR) consist of three protein subunits a, p and y. In unstimulated state, a subunit is GDP bound and GPCR is inactive. When GPCR gets activated, it acts like guanine nucleotide exchange (GEF) factor and induces a-subunit to release its bound GDP allowing GTP to bind in its place. In order to regulate G- protein activity by regulating GDP/GTP concentration, a subunit acts as
1.  GTPase
2.  GDP kinase
3.  cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase
4.  cAMP-specific phosphodiesterase

92.    Cellular level of tumour suppressor protein p53 is maintained by the ubiquitin ligase protein, Mdm2. Over expression of Mdm2 was found to convert a normal cell into cancer 
cells by destabilizing p53. Another protein inhibits the activity of Mdm2 thus stabilizing p53. Loss of    function also
converts normal cells into cancer cells. Based on the above information, which one of the following statements is correct?

93.The relation between cellular immune response generated against hepatitis C virus is the critical determinant of the outcome of infection. Given below are the representative figures of cellular immune response in column I and various outcome of infection in column II

Choose the best possible combination
1.  A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i)
2. A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii)
3. A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i)
4. A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)

94.    There are various subclasses of antibodies found in body fluids and body secretions. Many different functions may be attributed to these subclasses. Given below in column I is major functions of different subclasses and column II consists of the name of the subclass.

Select the correct combination:
1.    A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv), E- (v)
2.    A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (v), E- (i)
3.    A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (v), D - (i), E- (ii)
4.    A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (v), D - (ii), E- (i)

95.  Instructive and permissive interactions are two major modes of inductive interaction during development. The following compares some properties of cell lines and cord blood stem cells. Cell lines, which are stored in liquid nitrogen, can be retrieved for experiments, where they behave as per their original self. Cord blood can also be retrieved from liquid nitrogen for procuring stem cells. Unlike cell lines, the stem cells can be additionally induced to undergo differentiation into desired lineages, which are very different from their original self. The behaviour of cell lines and stem cells is analogous to which of the interactions?
1.  Both cell lines and stem cells show instructive interaction
2.  Cell lines show instructive interaction whereas stem cells show permissive interaction
3.  Cell lines show permissive interaction whereas stem cells show instructive interaction
4.  Both types of cells show permissive instruction

96.    Following are certain statements regarding morphogen gradients and cell specification.
A.  Morphogens are always transcription factors
B.  Morphogens can be paracrine factors that are produced in one group of cells and travel to another population of cells
C.  When the concentration of a morphogen drops below a certain threshold, cells stop differentiating and never get determined to another fate
D.  Morphogen gradients are involved in conditional specification
Which combination of the above statements is true?
1. A and B    
2. B and D
3. C and D    
4. A and C

97. Successful fertilization in sea urchin demands specific interaction between proteins and receptors of sperms and eggs. In view of the above, which one of the following combinations is correct?
1.    Bindin in acrosomes and bindin receptors on egg vitelline membrane
2.    Bindin in egg membrane and bindin receptors in acrosomes
3.    Resact on egg jelly and bindin on sperm membrane
4.    Proteasomes on egg membranes and complex sugars on sperm membranes

98.    Following statements are made in relation to the five widely recognized stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis:
A.    The fusion of haploid egg and sperm takes place in Globular stage
B.    Rapid cell division in two regions on either side of the future shoot apex forms Heart stage
C.    The cell elongation throughout the embryo axis and further development result in Torpedo stage
D.    The embryo loses water and becomes metabolically inactive in the Zygotic stage
Which combination of the above statements is correct?
1. A and B    2. B and C
3.    C and D    4. D and A

99. The following are statements regarding the development and maintenance of anterior and posterior compartments in each segment of Drosophila:
A.    Expression of wingless and engrailed is activated by pair-rule genes
B.    Continued expression of wingless and engrailed is maintained by interaction between the cells expressing Engrailed and Wingless proteins
C.    Hedgehog is expressed in wingless expressing cells and forms short range gradient
D.    Hedgehog is a transcription factor
E.    Engrailed is a secretory factor and binds with the patched receptor of the wingless expressing cells
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
1. C and E    2. C, D and E
3.    D and E    4. A and B

100.    In C. elegans, an anchor cell and a few hypodermal cells take part in the formation of vulva. The experiments performed to understand the role of these cells in vulva formation and the results obtained are as follows:
-    If the anchor cell is killed by laser beam, hypodermal cells do not participate in vulva formation and no vulva develops.
-    If six hypodermal cells closely located with anchor cell (called vulval procursor cells) are killed, no vulva develops.
-    If the three central vulval precursors are destroyed, the three outer cells, which normally form hypodermis, take the fate of vulval cells instead.
Following are certain statements regarding vulva formation:
A.    Anchor cell acts as an inducer
B.    Six hypodermal cells with the potentiality to form vulva, form an equivalence group
C.    Three, out of six, hypodermal cells partici¬pate in vulva formation
D.    The central cell functions as the 1°cell and the two cells on both side act as the 2° cells
E.    The 1 ° cell secretes a short range juxtacrine signal
Which combinations of the above statements have been derived from the above experimental results?
1. A, B and C    2. A, B and D
3.    D and E    4. B, D and E

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101. Following are certain statements regarding terpene class of secondary metabolites in plants:
A.   Isopentenyl diphosphate and its isomer combine to form larger terpenes.
B.   Diterpenes are 20 carbon compounds.
C.   All terpenes are derived from the union of 4-carbon elements.
D.   Pyrethroids are monoterpene esters.
Which one of the following combination of above statements is correct?
1. A, B and C    
2. A, B and D
3. B, C and D    
4. A, C and D

102.    The nodulation (nod) genes are classified as common nod genes or host specific nod genes. Some statements related to such classification are given below:
A.    nodA is a common nod gene and nodC is a host specific gene.
B.    nodB is a common nod gene and nodP is a host specific gene.
C.    nodQ is a common nod gene and nodA is a host specific gene.
D.    nodH is a common nod gene and nodQ is a host specific gene.
Choose the correct answer from the above statements:
1. A and B    2. C and D
3.    A only    4. B only

103.    Following are certain statements regarding CO2 assimilation in higher plants:
A.    The action of aldolase enzyme during Calvin-Benson cycle produces fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
B.   The conversion of glycine to serine takes place in mitochondria during C2 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle.
C.   During C4 carbon cycle, NAD-malic enzyme releases the CO2 from the 4-carbon acid, malate yielding a 3-carbon acid, pyruvate.
D.   Malic acid during crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) is stored in mitochondria during dark and released back to cytosol during day.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
1. A, B and C    
2. A, C and D
3. B, C and D    
4. A, B and D

104.    Many factors related to the role of abscisic acid (ABA) in contributing to drought, cold and salt resistance in plants are listed below:
A.    The transcription factors DREB1 and DREB2 bind to the cis-acting elements of the promoter of ABA-responsive genes in an ABA-dependent manner.
B.    ABA induces many genes such as LEA and RD29.
C.    ABA-responsive genes contain six- nucleotide ABRE elements in the promoter.
D.    Nine-nucleotide dehydration-responsive elements (DRE) are present in ABA- responsive genes.
Which one of the following combinations of the above statements is correct with respect to ABA?
1. A, B and C    2. A, C and D
3.    B, C, and D    4. A only

105.    Examples of many factors that regulate plant height in response to gibberellic acid
(GA) are listed below:
A.    Binding of a GA-bound repressor to the promoter of the DELLA domain- containing GRAS protein gene and blocking its expression.
B.    Binding of the GA-receptor complex to GRAS.
C.    Directing GRAS for ubiquitination and degradation by the 26S proteasome.
D.    Micro RNA directed down regulation of the GRAS protein expression.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
1. A and B    2. B and C
3.    C and D    4. A and D

106.    Ethylene is an important plant hormone that regulates several aspects of plant growth and development. Some statements are given below in relation to ethylene signalling pathways:
A.    Unbound ethylene receptors work as positive regulators of the response pathway.
B.    There are more than two ethylene receptors known to date.
C.    The carboxy-terminal half of the ethylene receptor, ETR1 (Ethylene-response 1), contains a domain homologous to histidine kinase catalytic domain.
D.    EIN2 (Ethylene-insensitive 2) encodes a transmembrane protein. The ein2 mutation promotes ethylene responses in both seedlings and adult Arabidopsis plants.
Which combination of the above statements is correct?
1. A and B    2. B and C
3.    C and D    4. D and A

107.  After hemorrhage, a subject develops hypo-volemia and hypotension. Following are some of the statements regarding homeostatic measure taken by the body after hemorrhage.
A.    Increased release of vasopressin
B.    Increased water retention and reduced plasma osmolality
C.    Increased rate of afferent discharge from low-pressure receptors of vascular system
D.    Decreased rate of afferent discharge from high pressure receptors of vascular system
Which one of the following is NOT correct in this condition?
1. Only A    2. A and B
3.    Only C    4. B and D

108.   A visitor to a region of hot climate is more distressed by the heat than the regular resident. Within a few weeks, the visitor is more comfortable with the heat and capacity for work is increased. Following are some of the explanations given by a researcher regarding acclimatization to heat.
A.    Sweating begins at a lower body temperature
B.    Blood flow through skin is high for any body temperature
C.    There is rise in resting body temperature
D.    Vasoconstriction starts at a lower body temperature
Which one of the following is NOT true?
1.    Only A    2. A and B
3.    Only C    4. C and D

109.  The difference in circulation between glo-merular capillaries (GC) and true capillaries (TC) are described by a researcher in the following statements:
A.    The hydrostatic pressure in GC is higher than that in TC
B.    The endothelial cells are fenestrated in GC but not in TC
C.   Both filtration and fluid movement into capillary takes place in TC but only filtration occurs in GC.
D.   The plasma colloid osmotic pressures in both the ends of GC or TC are similar.
Which one of the following is NOT correct?
1. Only A    2. A and B
3.    B and C    4. Only D

110.    When rods of retina kept in dark, were exposed to light, phototransduction occurred. Following are some explanations given by a researcher regarding phototransduction:
A.    Activation of transducin
B.    Inhibition of cGMP phosphodiesterase
C.    Closure of Na+ channels
D.    Hyperpolarization of rods Which one did NOT occur in photo¬transduction
1. only A    2. only B
3.    A and C    4. C and D

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111.  The afferent nerve fibres of a stretch reflex were electrically stimulated and the contraction of the muscle innervated by efferent fibres was recorded. The synaptic delay was calculated from the time points of the nerve stimulation and response of the muscle. Which one of the following time durations will be probable value for the observed synaptic delay?
1.    0.05 msec 2. 0.5 msec
3.    0.5 sec    4. 5.0 msec

112. A convenient     and     reasonably     reliable  indicator of the time  of ovulation is  usually a  rise  in  the  basal  body  temperature,  possibly  because   progesterone   is   thermogenic . Of  the  four  situations  given  below,  which  one  is  ideal  for  ensuring  pregnancy  after  intercourse?

113. In an organism, expression of gene ‘X’ is induced in the presence of a hormone. Genetic analysis showed that the hormonal signal is transduced through two proteins Let1 and Let2. The expression of gene ‘X’ was studied in lines over-expressing (OE) the active Let proteins, knock out (KO) of the Let proteins or combination of both. Results of expression of gene ‘X’ in presence of the hormone is summarized below:

114. Two siblings who inherit 50% of the genome from the mother and 50% from the father show lot of phenotypic differences. Which one of the following events during gametogenesis of the parents will maximally contribute to this difference?
1. Mutation
2. Recombination
3. Independent assortment
4. Environment

115. Consider the following hypothetical pathway:

H allele converts X substance to H substance
h allele cannot convert X to H substance and leads to phenotype ‘O’
A allele converts H substance leading to A phenotype
a allele cannot convert H substance
B allele converts H substance leading to B phenotype
b allele cannot convert H substance
An individual with A phenotype when crossed with that of B phenotype has a progeny with O phenotype. Which one of the following crosses can lead to the above observation?
1. Aahh* BbHH 2. AaHh* BBHh
3. AaHh *BBHH 4. AAHH *BbHh

116.Three somatic hybrid cell lines, designated as X, Y and Z, have been scored for the presence or absence of chromosomes 1 through 8, as well as for their ability to produce the hypothetical gene product A, B, C and D as shown in the following table:

Which of the following option has most appropriately assigned chromosomes for each of the given genes?
1. Gene A on chromosome 5, Gene B on chromosome 3, Gene C on chromosome 8 and Gene D on chromosome 1
2. Gene A on chromosome 5 and Gene B on chromosome 3 only
3. Gene D on chromosome 8, Gene C on chromosome 1, Gene B on chromosome 5 and Gene A on chromosome 4
4. Gene A on chromosome 5, Gene B on chromosome 3 and Gene D on chromosome 1

117. The following diagram shows meiotic pairing in an inversion heterozygote and a point where single crossing over has occurred

The resulting gametes produced may have
A. the chromosome having normal gene sequence
B. the chromosome having inverted gene sequence
C. a dicentric chromosome with duplication and deletion
D. an acentric chromosome having duplication and deletion
E. the chromosome having duplication and deletion
Which of the following combination will be most appropriate for the diagram shown:
1. A, B, C and D 2. A, B and E
3. B, C, D and E 4. A, C, D and E

118. Of the following, which one of the individuals will NOT necessarily carry the allele responsible for the mentioned trait?
1. A woman in a family where an autosomal dominant trait is segregating and her mother and son are affected.
2. A daughter of a man who is affected by an X-linked dominant trait
3. A father of a child who is affected with an autosomal recessive trait
4. A father of a boy affected with X-linked recessive trait

119. Which of the following is the correct match of the algal group with its food reserve?

1. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
3. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v)
4. A-(i), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(ii)

120. A researcher conducts a standard test to identify enteric bacteria (A, B, C) on the basis of their biochemical properties. The result is given in the following table

Based on the above, the identified bacteria A, B and C are most probably
1. Enterobacter, Salmonella, Escherichia.
2. Escherichia, Salmonella, Enterobacter.
3. Salmonella, Enterobacter, Escherichia.
4. Escherichia, Enterobacter, Salmonella.

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121. Following is a cladogram of the major taxonomic groups of the angiosperms:

Groups A-E represent respectively:
1. Astrobaileyales, Nymphaedales, Amborellales, Chloranthaceae, Magnoliids
2. Amborellales, Astrobaileyales, Nymphaedales, Magnoliids, Chloranthaceae
3. Amborellales, Nymphaedales, Astrobaileyales, Chloranthaceae, Magnoliids
4. Amborellales, Nymphaedales, Chloranthaceae, Magnoliids, Astrobaileyales

122.The following are some important features which are commonly associated with animal  development:
A. Position of anus development with respect to blastopore
B. Method of cell division
C. Mechanism of coelom formation
D. Cleavage pattern during egg development
Based on the above, which one of the following combinations differentiate the development of deuterostomes from that of protostomes?
1. A, B and C 2. B, C and D
3. A, C and D 4. A and B

123. The phylogenetic tree of amniote vertebrates is given in the following diagram

The groups labelled A, B, C, D are
1. A-Snakes, B-Turtles, C-Birds, D-Mammals
2. A-Snakes, B-Turtles, C-Mammals, D-Birds
3. A-Turtles, B-Birds, C-Snakes, D-Mammals
4. A-Birds, B-Turtles, C-Snakes, D-Mammals

124. The following are matches made between adult animals and their larval forms:
A. Copepods - Nauplius
B. Sea cucumber - Zoea
C. Sea urchin - Echinopleuteus
D. Crabs – Auricularia
E. Star fish – Bipinnaria
F. Brittle star - Ophiopleuteus
Which one of the combinations below reflects INCORRECT matches?
1. A, C, E
2.B and D
3. B only
4.F only

125. Which of the following statements about the birth rates (b1, b2) and death rates (d1, d2) of species 1 and 2 indicated in the figure is NOT true?

1. Birth rates of species 1 are density- independent.
2. Death rates of both species are density- dependent.
3. Birth rates of species 2 are density- dependent.
4. Density-dependent effects on death rates are similar for both the species.

126. Important chemical reactions involved in nutrient cycling in ecosystems are given below:

The organisms associated with these chemical reactions are
1. a – Nitrosomonas b – Pseudomonas c – Nostoc d – Nitrobacter
2. a – Pseudomonas b – Nitrobacter c – Nostoc d –Nitrosomonas
3. a – Nitrobacter b – Nostoc c – Nitrosomonas d – Pseudomonas
4. a – Nostoc b – Nitrosomonas c – Nitrobacter d – Pseudomonas

127. A population is growing logistically with a growth rate (r) of 0.15/week, in an environment with a carrying capacity of 400. What is the maximum growth rate (No. of individuals/week) that this population can achieve?
1. 15
2.30
3. 22.5
4.60

128. In a field experiment, autotrophs are provided a 14C-labelled carbon compound for photosynthesis. Radioactivity (14C) levels were then monitored at regular intervals in all
40
the trophic levels. In which ecosystem is the radioactivity likely to be detected fastest at the primary carnivore level?
1. Open ocean
2.Desert
3. Deciduous forest
4.Grassland

129. Which of the following X – Y relationships does NOT follow the pattern shown in the graph?

1. Number of prey killed (Y) in relation to prey densityन(X)
2. Photosynthetic rate (Y) in relation to light intensity (X)
3. Species richness (Y) in relation to area (X)
4. Tree species richness (Y) in relation to actual evapotranspiration

130. Following table shows the number of individuals of five tree species in a community:

Based on the above, the Simpson’s diversity (DS) Index of the community will be
1. 0.552.
2. 0.335.
3. 0.435.
4. 0.345.

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131. Following table shows the presence (+) or absence (–) of five species in three communities (A, B, C):


Based on the above, which of the following is the correct order of similarity between two pairs of communities?
1. A and B > B and C > A and C
2. A and B > A and C > B and C
3. B and C > A and B > A and C
4. A and C > A and B > B and C

132. In several populations, each of size N=20, if genetic drift results in a change in the relative frequencies of alleles,
A. What is the rate of increase per generation in the proportion of populations in which the allele is lost or fixed?
B. What is the rate of decrease per generation in each allele frequency class between 0 and 1?
The correct answer for A and B is:
1. A – 0.25, B – 0.125
2. A – 0.025, B – 0.0125
3. A – 0.0125, B – 0.025
4. A – 0.125, B – 0. 25

133. Individual A can derive ‘fitness’ benefit of 160 units by helping Individual B, but incurs a ‘fitness’ cost of 50 units in doing so. Following Hamilton’s Rule, A should help B ONLY if B is his
1. brother or sister.
2. first cousin only.
3. cousin or uncle.
4. nephew or niece.

134. The “Red Queen Hypothesis” is related to
1. the mating order in the harem of a polygamous male.
2. the elimination by deleterious mutations by sexual reproduction.
3. mate selection process by a female in a lek.
4. the evolutionary arms race between the host and the parasite.

135. In a population of effective population size Ne, with rate of neutral mutation μ0, the frequency of heterozygotes per nucleotide site at equilibrium between mutation and genetic drift is calculated as

136. As cancer progresses, several genome rearrangements including translocation, deletion, duplications etc. occur. If these rearrangements are to be identified, which of the following techniques would be most suitable?
1. RAPD
2. Microarray
3. Multi-colour FISH
4. Flow cytometry

137. A student noted the following points regarding Agrobacterium tumefaciens:
A. A. tumefaciens is a gram-negative soil bacterium.
B. Opine catabolism genes are present in T- DNA region of Ti-plasmid.
C. Opines are synthesized by condensation of amino acids and a-ketoacids or amino acids and sugars.
D. A callus culture of crown gall tissue casued by A. tumefaciens in plants can be multiplied without adding phytohormones.
Which one of the combinations of above statements is correct?
1. A, B and C
2. A, B and D
3. B, C and D
4. A, C and D

138. A mixture of two proteins was subjected to following three chromatographic columns: a) Cation exchange, b) Size exclusion (Sephadex 100) and (c) Reverse phase. Following elution profiles were obtained

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. A is larger and more hydrophobic than B.
2. B is more anionic and more hydrophobic than A.
3. A is more hydrophobic and smaller than B.
4. A is more cationic and smaller than B.

139. Glucose in the blood is detected by four different methods (a, b, c and d). The sensitivity and range of detection of glucose by these four methods is shown below. Clinically relevant concentration of glucose in blood is between 80 – 250mg/dL
Which of the following method is most appropriate?

1. a
2.b
3. c
4.d

140. The following statements are related to plant tissue culture
A. Friable callus provides the inoculum to form cell-suspension cultures.
B. The process known as ‘habituation’ refers to the property of callus loosing the requirement of auxin and/or cytokinin during long term culture.
C. Cellulase and pectinase enzymes are usually used for generating protoplast cultures.
D. During somatic embryo development, torpedo stage embryo is formed before heart stage embryo.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?
1. A, B and C 2. A, B and D
3. A, C and D 4. B, C and D

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 141. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a compound can be obtained only if it has a net positive charge at pH 7.4
2. Helical content of a tryptophan containing peptide can be obtained by examining the fluorescence spectrum of tryptophan
3. The occurrence of beta sheet in a protein can be inferred from its circular dichroism spectrum
4. The chemical shift spread for a compound is more in its 1H NMR spectrum as compared to its 13C NMR spectrum

142. A researcher is studying the subcellular localization of a particular protein ‘X’ in an animal cell. The researcher performs successive centrifugation at increasing rotor speed. The researcher starts spinning the cellular homogenate at 600g for 10 min, collects the pellet, spins the supernatant at 10,000 g for 20 min, collects the pellet, spins the supernatant at 100,000g for 1 hour, collects both the pellet and the final supernatant. On subjecting various pellets and the final supernatant to Western blotting with anti-protein-X antibody, the protein X is observed to be maximally expressed in pellet after centrifugation at 10,000 g. Based on the above observation, what will be the most likely localization of protein X.
1. Nucleus 2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria 4. Microsomes

143. Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching in live cells is used to determine
1. co-localization of proteins
2. distance between two organelles
3. diffusion of proteins
4. nucleic acid compactness

144. You have transiently expressed a new protein (for which no antibody is available) in a cell line to establish structure function relationship. Which one of the following strategies is the most straight forward way to examine the expression profile of this new protein?
1. By metabolic labelling using 35S labelled amino acids
2. Making a GFP fusion protein with this new protein
3. Immunoprecipitating this protein with the help of another protein for which antibody is available
4. Running SDS-PAGE and identify the protein

145. During an experiment, a student found increased activity of a protein, for which there were three possible explanations, viz., increased expression of the protein, increased phosphorylation, or increased interaction with other effector proteins. After conducting several experiments, the student concluded that increased activity was due to increased phosphorylation. Which one of the following experiments will NOT support/provide the correct explanation drawn by the student?
1. Western blot analysis
2. Analysis of transcription rate
3. Mass spectroscopy
4. Phospho amino acid analysis

Answers Key

Q. No.

Key

Q. No.

Key

Q. No.

Key

Q. No.

Key

1

4

41

1

81

2

121

3

2

2

42

4

82

3

122

3

3

2

43

3

83

3

123

3

4

2

44

4

84

4

124

2

5

1

45

1

85

2

125

4

6

2

46

3

86

4

126

3

7

3

47

4

87

4

127

1

8

3

48

2

88

4

128

1

9

4

49

1

89

1

129

4

10

2

50

2

90

3

130

2

11

1

51

1

91

1

131

1

12

3

52

3

92

3

132

3

13

3

53

2

93

2

133

1

14

2

54

3

94

4

134

4

15

3

55

2 or 3

95

3

135

2

16

1

56

4

96

2

136

3

17

2

57

2

97

1

137

*

18

4

58

4

98

2

138

3

19

4

59

4

99

4

139

2

20

4

60

2

100

1

140

1

21

3

61

4

101

2

141

3

22

1 or 2 or 3

62

2

102

4

142

3

23

1

63

4

103

1

143

3

24

3

64

4

104

1 or 2 or 3

144

2

25

1

65

3

105

2

145

2

26

1

66

4

106

2

 

 

27

1

67

4

107

3

 

 

28

4

68

3

108

4

 

 

29

3

69

1

109

4

 

 

30

3

70

1

110

2

 

 

31

2

71

4

111

2

 

 

32

2

72

1

112

1

 

 

33

4

73

1

113

2

 

 

34

3

74

4

114

3

 

 

35

*

75

2

115

2

 

 

36

4

76

2

116

4

 

 

37

2

77

3

117

2

 

 

38

2

78

2

118

4

 

 

39

1

79

4

119

1

 

 

40

2

80

1

120

2

 

 

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