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GPAT 2012 | Question paper with key solutions

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FIND 1-75 Questions

76-150 questions are available below:

Q.76    Penicillin ring system is derived from two of the following amino acids:
[P] : Alanine and methionine [Q] : Cysteine and valine [R] : Glycine and cysteine [S] : Methionine and leucine
Choose the correct pair.
(A)   P    (B)   Q    (C)   R    (D)   S

Q.77    For the management of which disease the given drug tacrine is used? Identify. NH2
(A)    Glaucoma
(B)    Antidote for acticholinesterase poisoning
(C)    As an insecticide
(D)    Alzheimers disease

Q.78    Low dose aspirin acts as anti-platelet aggregating agent by which one of the following mechanisms? Find the correct answer.
(A)    It acts as a suicide substrate for COX-1 enzyme present in platelets
(B)    It acts as a transition state analog for COX-2 enzyme present in the platelets
(C)    It acts as a reversible inhibitor of lipoxigenase present in the platelets
(D)    It acts as an affinity label of oxidoreductases present in the platelets

Q.79 Some statements are given for clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam:
[P] : All three lack the 6-acylamino side chain
[Q]: All are potent inhibitors of the enzyme
ß-lactamase
[R] : All are prodrugs of penicillin
[S] : All have weak antibacterial activity
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P, Q and R are true while S is false
(B)    Q, R and S are true while P is false
(C)    P, R and S are true while Q is false
(D)    P, Q and S are true while R is false

Q.80 Electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions in indole give one of the following products preferably. Identify that.
(A)   3-Substituted indole    (B)   2-Substituted indole
(C)   5-Substituted indole    (D)   6-Substituted indole

Q.81 Which one of the following species is an intermediate in the reaction shown below?

                         NaOH
2CH3CH2CHO ---------> CH3CH2CH(OH).CH(CH3).CHO

(A)    +CH2.CH2.CHO    (B)    -CH2.CH2.CHO
(C)    CH3
.+CH.CHO      (D)   CH3.-CH.CHO

Q.82 Which detector is used in gas chromatography for halogen containing compounds specifically?
(A)    Katharometer
(B)    Electron capture detector
(C)    Flame ionization detector
(D)    Thermal conductivity detector

Q.83 Precessional frequency of a nucleus depends on the followings:
[P] : Quantum of externally applied magnetic field
[Q] : Quantum of electron density present around the nucleus
[R] : Frequency of applied electromagnetic radiations
[S] : Electronegativity of the element
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P & Q are true    (B)   P & R are true
(C)   Q & R are true    (D)   P & S are true

Q.84    Some statements are given about disodium edetate:
[P] : Disodium edetate is a bidentate ligand
[Q] : Disodium edetate is a complexing agent but not a chelating agent
[R] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of lithium carbonate
[S] : Disodium edetate can be used for the assay of zinc sulphate
Choose the correct answer.
(A)   Q, R & S are true    (B)   Q & S are true
(C)   S only is true    (D)   P, Q, R & S all are true

Q.85    Which one of the following amino acids is the most effective contributor of protein buffer?
(A)   Alanine    (B)   Glycine    (C)   Histidine    (D)   Arginine

Q.86    Given are some statements about cycloalkanes:
[P] : Bayer's theory does not apply to four membered rings.
[Q]: Cyclohexane and cyclodecane rings are not flat but are puckered.
[R]: Chair form of cyclohexane experiences van der Waals strain due to flagpole interactions.
[S] : Boat form of cyclohexane experiences both torsional and van der Waals strain. Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q & R are true and S is false    
(B)   Q & S are true and P & R are false
(C)   P, Q & S are true and R is false
(D)   Q, R & S are true and P is false

Q.87    Phenols are more acidic than alcohols. This is due to one the following reasons. Identify that.
(A)    Alkoxide ions are better stabilized by the electron releasing alkyl groups
(B)    Resonance stabilizes both phenols and phenoxide ions to the same extent
(C)    Phenols are better stabilized than the phenoxide ions while reverse is true for alcohols and alkoxides
(D)    Phenoxide ions are much better stabilized than the alkoxide ions

Q.88    Study the following statements on alkylating agents as antineoplastics:
[P] : They get converted to aziridinium ions and bind  to 7th position -N atom of guanine of DNA base pairs
[Q] : Nitrogen mustards and Sulfur mustards belong to this class of drugs
[R] : They  inhibit  dihydrofolate  reductase  enzyme  thereby  inhibiting  DNA synthesis
[S] : They chelate electropositive atoms present in the DNA thereby inhibiting DNA uncoiling
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P and Q are correct    (B)   R and S are correct
(C)   P and S are correct    (D)   Q and R are correct

Q.89    Study the following statements about the stereochemistry of steroidal aglycones in cardiac glycosides:
[P] :    Rings A-B and C-D are cis fused while B-C is trans fused.
[Q] :    Rings A-B and C-D are trans fused while B-C is cis fused.
[R] :    Rings A-B are trans fused while B-C and C-D are els fused.
[S] :    Rings A-B are cis fused while B-C and C-D are trans fused.
Choose the correct statement.
(A)    P is true while Q, R and S are false
(B)    Q is true while P, R and S are false
(C)    R is true while P, Q and S are false
(D)    S is true while P, R and Q are false

Q.90    Following are some statements about Captopril:
[P] : It is a prototype molecule in the design of ACE inhibitors
[Q] : It contains a sulphonyl group in its structure
[R] : It has a proline moiety in its structure
[S] : It has an ester linkage
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B)    Q & R are true while P & S are false
(C)    P & R are true while Q & S are false
(D)    R & S are true while P & Q are false

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Q.91     Cetirizine as an antihistaminic agent has a low sedative potential due to one of the following reasons. Identify that.
(A)   It has a chiral center    (B)   It has high log P value
(C)   It has high polarity    (D)   It has low molecular weight

Q.92    There are some criteria which an ideal antacid should fulfill. Some of the criteria are given below:
[P] : The antacid should be absorbable orally and should buffer in the pH range of 4 - 6
[Q]: The antacid should exert its effect rapidly and should not cause a large evolution of gas
[R] : The antacid should not be a laxative or should not cause constipation
[S] : The antacid should react with the gastric acid and should inhibit pepsin
Choose the correct combination of criteria for an ideal antacid.
(A)   P, Q&R    (B)   Q, R&S    (C)   Q&R    (D)   R & S

Q.93 Titanium dioxide is used in sun screen products as a topical protective. The topical protective effect of titanium dioxide is arising due to one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A)   It has a high bulk density      (B)   It has a high LTV absorptivity
(C)   It has a low water solubility    (D)   It has a high refractive index

Q.94 Deferoxamine is used for the treatment of toxicity caused by one of the following ions. Identify that.
(A)   Arsenic    (B)   Cyanide    (C)   Iron    (D)   Lead

Q.95 Parachor and Molar refraction can be categorized under one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A)   Additive properties    (B)   Constitutive properties
(C)   Colligative properties    (D)   Additive and constitutive property

Q.96 East's camphor method is used for determination of molecular weight of solutes which are soluble in molten camphor. The basic principle of the method is dependent on one of the following properties. Identify that.
(A)    Elevation of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(B)    Lowering of vapour pressure of camphor by the solute
(C)    Lowering of freezing point of camphor by the solute
(D)    Elevation of boiling point of camphor by the solute

Q.97 In polarography, when the limiting current is achieved, one of the following processes takes place. Choose that.
(A)    The rate of electron transfer just matches the rate of mass transfer
(B) The rate of electron transfer is slower than the rate of mass transfer
(C) The rate of electron transfer becomes independent of the rate of mass transfer
(D) The rate of electron transfer far exceeds the rate of mass transfer

Q.98 Starch-iodide paste/paper is used as an external indicator in one of the following titrations. Identify that.
(A)    lodometric titration of copper sulphate using sodium thiosulphate as titrant
(B)    Iodimetric titration of ascorbic acid using iodine solution as titrant
(C)    Diazotisation titration of sulphadiazine using sodium nitrite as titrant
(D)    Potassium dichromate titration using sodium thiosulphate as titrant

Q.99 For a dye to be used as metal indicator in complexometric titrations, some of the dye properties are listed below:
[P] : The dye should have distinct colour than the dye-metal complex
[Q]: The dye-metal complex should have a higher stability than the metal-chelate (titrant) complex
[R] : The dye should be capable of complexing with the metal ions
Choose the correct combination of statements for the dye to be used as an indicator in complexometric titrations.
(A)   P & Q are correct while R is not
(B)   Q & R are correct while P is not
(C)   P & R are correct while Q is not
(D)   P, Q & R all are correct

Q.100 In amperometry, rotating platinum electrode (RPE) is used as indicating electrode. It has certain advantages as well as disadvantages. Read the following statements about the use of rotating platinum electrode in amperometry:
[P] : It causes large diffusion current due to rotation resulting in greater mass transfer
[Q] : It causes greatly reduced residual current due to lack of condenser effect
[R] : It has a low hydrogen over potential
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P, Q & R are all advantages of using RPE in amperometry
(B)    P & R are advantages of RPE while Q is a disadvantage
(C)    Q & R are advantages of RPE while P is a disadvantage
(D)    P & Q are advantages of RPE while R is a disadvantage

Q.101   What will be the approximate Tmax of a drug exhibiting Ka of 2 hr-1 and K of 0.2 hr-1?
(A)    1.2 hr    (B)   2.4 hr    (C)   4.8 hr    (D)   2.0 hr   ,

Q.102   There are some statements related to the protein binding of drugs as given below:
[P] : Protein binding decreases the free drug concentration in the system.
[Q]: Protein binding to plasma albumin is an irreversible process.
[R] : Drugs with a low lipophilicity have a high degree of protein binding.
[S] : Protein binding of one drug can be affected by the presence of other drug.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true while R & S are false
(B)    Q & R are true while P & S are false 
(C)    R & S are true while P & Q are false
(D)    P & S are true while Q & R are false

Q.103 Based on Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, at what pH value a weak acid would be 99.9% ionized?
(A)   At pH equivalent to pka + 3    (B)   At pH equivalent to pka — 3
(C)   At pH equivalent to pka - 1    (D)   At pH equivalent to pka + 1

Q.104 Some statements about crystals are given below:
[P] : The crystal lattice is constructed from repeating units called unit cells.
[Q]: The external appearance of a crystal is described by crystal habits, such as
needles, prisms, rosettes etc.
[R] : Polymorphism is the ability of a compound to crystallize as more than one
distinct crystalline species with different internal lattice.
[S] : Hydrates are always more soluble than anhydrous form of the same drug Choose the corrected combination of statements about crystals.
(A)    Statement P, Q and S are correct but R is wrong
(B)    Statement P, Q and R are correct but S is wrong
(C)    Statement Q, R and S are correct but P is wrong
(D)    Statement R, S and P are correct but Q is wrong

Q.105 Which one of the followings is NOT used in preparation of baby powders?
(A)   Stearic acid    (B)   Boric acid
(C)   Kaolin            (D)   Calcium carbonate

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Q.106 According to Kozeny Carmen equation a 10% change in porosity can produce:
(A)   Two fold change in viscosity    (B)   Five fold change in viscosity
(C)   Three fold change in viscosity    (D)   None of the above

Q.107 Speed disk atomizer rotates at a speed of:
(A)   3000 - 5000 revolutions per min    
(B)   3000 - 50000 revolutions per min
(C)   300 - 50000 revolutions per min
(D)   300 - 5000 revolutions per min

Q.108 The Gold coating on a USP Dissolution apparatus - I basket should be:
(A)    Not more than 2.5
µ   in thickness
(B)    Not more than 0.001 mm in thickness
(C)    Not more than 0.025
µ in thickness
(D)    Not more than 0.1 mm in thickness

Q.109 Containers used for aerosols should withstand a pressure of:
(A)    130-150 Psig at 130 °F    (B)    140-180 Psig at 130 °F
(C)   140-170 Psig at 120 °F    (D)   120-140 Psig at 120 °F

Q.110   Study the following two statements:
[X] : If the gas is cooled below its critical temperature, less pressure is required to liquefy it.
[Y] : At critical temperature and critical pressure, the liquid will have highest vapor pressure.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)    Both X and Y are correct
(B)    X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C)    X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D)    Both X and Y are incorrect

Q.111   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a]: For an API of approximately same particle size, the angle of repose will increase with departure from spherical shape. Reason
[r]    : Angle of repose is a function of surface roughness and particle size. With
constant particle size, increase in roughness increases angle of repose.
(A)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [rj are false
(C)    Both fa] and [rj are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.112   Study the following two statements:
fX] : When used as granulating agent PEG 6000 improves dissolution rate of the dosage form as it forms a complex with a better solubility.
[Y] : Sodium CMC when used as a binder affects dissolution rate of the dosage form as it is converted to less soluble acid form at low pH of the gastric fluid.
Choose the correct answer.
(A)    Both X and Y are correct
(B)    X is incorrect and Y is correct
(C)    X is correct and Y is incorrect
(D)    Both X and Y are incorrect .

Q.113   Study the following statements about Gram staining:
[P]: Gram positive bacteria are stained deep violet and Gram negative bacteria are stained red.
[Q]: Gram positive bacteria are stained red and Gram negative bacteria are stained deep violet.
[R]: The sequence of addition of staining reagents is crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol and safranin.
[S] : In Gram positive bacteria the purple color developed during staining is lost during alcohol treatment. The cells later take up the safranin and stain red.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P, Q, R & S all are false    £g)   P & Q are false and R & S are true
(C)   P & S are false and Q & R are true    (D)   P & R are false and Q & S are true

Q.114   Choose the correct formula for the calculation of the retail price of a formulation, given by the Govt, of India.
(A)    R.P. = (M.C. + E.D. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + C.C.
(B)    R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
(C)    R.P. = (M.C. + C.C. + E.D. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + P.M.
(D)    R.P. = (M.C, + C.C. + P.M.+ E.D.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + P.C,

Q. 115   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : In arsenic poisoning, dimercaprol, injected intramuscularly, acts as
antidote by metal complexation. Reason [r]      : EDTA acts as an antidote in lead poisoning, by solubilizing the toxic
metal ions from the tissues.
(A)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(C)    Both [a] and fr] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.116   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a]  and the Reasons [r & s]:
Assertion fa] : Butylated hydroxytoluene is added as one of the ingredients in the lipstick formulation.
Reason [r]      : It is a good solvent for the wax - oil mixtures and coloring pigments
present in the lipstick. Reason [sj      : It is an antioxidant and prevents rancidity on storage.
(A)    [a] is true, and [r] and fs] are true and correct reasons for [a]
(B)    [a], [r] and fs] are all false
(C)    [a] is true, [s] is false, and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D)    [a] is true, [r] is false, and [sj is the correct reason for fa]

Q.117  Which one of the following statements is FALSE about Interferons?
(A) Interferons are cellular glycoproteins produced by virus infected cell
(B) Interferons have no effects on extracellular virus
(C) Interferons are virus specific agents that can interfere either with DNA or RNA virus
(D) They are produced as potent broad spectrum antiviral agents

Q.118   In relation to sodium chloride and water mixture, read the following statements:
[P] : Mixture is eutectic in nature
[Q]: It has eutectic point -21.2°C
[R]: The composition of eutectic is 25.3% by Mass
[S] : The mixture is a true eutectoid and may exist as peritectic also.
Which of the set of statements is correct?
(A)   P&Q    (B)   Q, R&S    (C)   P, Q&S    (D),  P, R & S

Q.119  In relation to sterilization, what is the meaning of D300F - 2 minutes?
(A)    Death of
all microorganisms in 2 minutes
(B)    Death of 300 microorganism in 2 minutes
(C)    Death of all microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F
(D)    Death of 90% microorganism in 2 minutes at 300°F

Q.120   Choose the correct combination:
        i    Rod mill                   p    Dried plant drug    
        ii    Hammer mill            q    Thermolabile drug    
        iii    Fluid energy mill      r     Paint    
(A)    i & q,    ii & p,    iii & r    (g)   i&r,  ii&p,    iii & q
(C)    i & q,    ii & r,    iii & p    (D)   i&p,  ii&q,    iii & r

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Q.121   Which one of the following statements is NOT true for stainless steel 316?
(A) It is also called inox steel
(B) It contains 10.5 - 11% chromium
(C) Due to the presence of chromium it exhibits passivation phenomenon
(D) It is not affected by acids

Q.122   Precise control of flow is obtained by which one of the followings?
(A)   Needle valve    (B)   Butterfly valve
(C)   Gate valve       (D)   Globe valve

Q.123   Heat sensitive materials like fruit juice are evaporated in which one of the followings?
(A)    Long tube vertical evaporator
(B)    Calandria type evaporator
(C)    Falling film type evaporator
(D)    Forced circulation type evaporator

Q. 124   Which of the following conditions favor formation of large crystals?
(A)   High degree of supersaturation    (B)   Low nucleation rate
(C)   High magma density                   (D)   Rapid cooling of magma

Q.125   If M, L, T, Q and θ are dimensional representations of mass, length, time, heat and temperature respectively, then what is the dimension of fluid thermal conductivity?
(A)   Q/M
θ    (B)   Q/TL2θ     (C)   Q/TLθ     (D)   M/LT

Q.126   Which one of the following properties is characteristic of microemulsions?
(A)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 1
µm
(B)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 10
µm
(C)    These are non-transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 µm
(D)    These are transparent systems with droplet size less than 1 nm

Q.127  Which one of the followings would be an offence in accordance with the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A) Packing of Paediatric oral drops in 30 ml pack
(B) Packing of Oxytocin injection in a single unit blister pack
(C) Packing of Schedule X drugs in 5 ml injection pack
(D) Packing of Aspirin tablets (75 mg) in 14 tablet strip pack

Q.128  Which one of the following colours is NOT permitted to be used in drugs by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
(A)   Chlorophyll       (B)   Riboflavin    (C)   Tartrazine        (D)   Amaranth

Q.129  At equal concentrations which    one of the following mucilages will possess maximum
viscosity?

(A)    Maize starch    (B)   Rice starch
(C)   Wheat starch    (D)   Potato starch

Q.130   By which mechanism the microorganisms are killed by autoclaving?
(A)    Coagulation of the cellular proteins of the microorganisms
(B)    Alkylation of essential cellular metabolites of microorganisms
(C)    Stopping reproduction of microorganism cells as a result of lethal mutations
(D)    Oxidation of RNA of microorganisms

Q.131   Manufacture and sale of some of the following drugs is prohibited in India:
[P] : Fixed dose combination of atropine and antidiarrhoeals
[Q]: Penicillin eye ointment
[R]: Nimesulide paediatric drops
[S] : Gatifloxacin tablets
Choose the drugs which are prohibited?
(A)   P, Q&R    (B)   Q, S&R
(C)   R, S&P    (D)   P, Q, R & S

Q.132   Following are the phases of clinical trials:
[P] : Human pharmacology
[Q]: Therapeutic confirmatory trials
[R] : Post marketing trials
[S] : Therapeutic exploratory trials
Choose the correct order of phases of clinical trial.
(A)   P, Q, R, S    (B)   P,R, Q, S
(C)   P,Q,S,R    (DI P, S, Q, R

Q.133   The integrity of seals in case of vials and bottles is determined by some tests. Some of them are given below:
[P]: Leaker's test
[Q]: Water hammer test
[R]: Spark tester probe
Choose the correct answer.
(A) P & Q    (B)   Q&R    (C)   P&R    (D)   P, Q & R all

Q.134   Study the following four statements:
[P] : Gram negative bacteria produce potent pyrogenic substances called endotoxins
[Q]: Ethylene oxide mixed with carbon dioxide or fluorinated hydrocarbons is used in gas sterilization
[R]: D value is the time (for heat or chemical exposure) or the dose (for radiation exposure) required for the microbial population to decline by one logarithmic unit
[S] : Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus {Bacillus stearothermophilus) are used for sterility testing of moist heat sterilization process
Choose the correct answer.
(A)    P, Q & R are correct but S is incorrect
(B)    Q, R & S are correct but P is incorrect
(C)    R, S & P are correct but Q is incorrect
(D)    P, Q, R & S all are correct

Q.135   Read the following statements:
[P] : The surface area measurement using BET approach utilizes argon gas for adsorption
[Q]: Full form of BET is Brunauer, Emmett and Teller
Choose the correct answer.
(A)   P & Q both are correct
(B)   P is correct but Q is incorrect
(C)    Q is correct but P is incorrect
(D)   Both P & Q are incorrect

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Q. 136   Based on the DLVO theory of force of interaction between colloidal particles, which one of the followings lead to attractive interaction between two particles?
(A)   Solvation forces    (T4).   Electrostatic forces
(C)   van der Waals forces    (B)   Steric forces

Q.137  Read the following statements with regard to viscosity of a polymer solution:
[P] : Specific viscosity of a polymer solution is obtained as relative viscosity + 1
[Q]: Relative viscosity is the ratio of the viscosity of the solution to the viscosity of pure solvent
[R]: Kinematic viscosity is defined as the viscosity of the liquid at a definite temperature
[S] : The unit for kinematic viscosity is poise or dyne sec cm"2 Indicate the correct combination of statements.
(A)    P & S are correct but Q&R are wrong
(B)    Q & R are correct but P & S are wrong
(C)    P & Q are correct but R & S are wrong
(D)    R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong

Q.138   Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
Assertion [a]: Salts having no ions in common with the slightly soluble electrolyte increase its solubility
Reason [r]: Such salts lower the activity coefficient of the slightly soluble electrolyte
(A)    Both [a] and [r] are true and fr] is the correct reason for [a]
(B)    Both [a] and [r] are false
(C)    Although [a] is true but [r] is false
(D)    Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]

Q.139  What negative adsorption would do?
(A)    Decrease the surface free energy as well as the surface tension
(B)    Increase the surface free energy as well as the surface tension
(C)    Decrease the surface free energy but increase the surface tension
(D)    Increase the surface free energy but decrease the surface tension

Q.140  Read the following statements:
[P] : At temperature below Kraft point, micelles will, not form
[Q]: At Kraft point, solubility of surfactant equals CMC
[R] : Kraft point increases with increasing chain length of hydrocarbon
[S] : Kraft point is normally exhibited by non-ionic surfactants
Choose the correct combination of answers.
(A)    P is correct but Q, R & S are wrong
(B)    R & S are correct but P & Q are wrong
(C)   P, Q & R are correct but S is wrong
(D)   
P, Q, R & S all are correct

Q.141 Two statements are given regarding the uniformity of dispersion test (LP.):
[P] : It is evaluated using 6 tablets and 500 mL water
[Q]: It involves measuring the dispersion time of each tablet
Choose the correct set of statements.
(A)    P is correct while Q is incorrect
(B)    P & Q both are correct
(C)    P is incorrect while Q is correct
(p)    Both P & Q are incorrect

Q.142 Read the following statements:
[P] : Caramelization occurs in acidic conditions
[Q]: Caramel is optically inactive glucose
[R] : Caramel is obtained by burning of glucose
[S] : Caramel is obtained by degradation of fructose
Choose the right combination of statements.
(A)    P & Q are true but R & S are false
(B)    P & S are true but Q & R are false
(C)    Q & R are true but P & S are false
(D)    R & S are true but P & Q are false

Q.143 Read the following statements regarding value added tax (VAT):
[P] : It is an indirect tax
[Q]: It is charged at the rate of 8%
[R] : It is tax at source
[S] : It is effective since April 2010
Choose the correct option.
(A)    P & Q are true R & S are false
(B)    R & S are true P & Q are false
(C)    P & R are true Q & S are false
(D)    Q & S are true P & R are false

Q.144 Find the process by which the conversion of sulfasalazine to sulfapyidine and 5-amino salicylic acid takes place in the colon?
(A)    Hydrolysis    (B)   Deamination
(C)   Acetylation    (D)   Azoreduction

Q.145 How much quantity (in grams) of sodium chloride is needed to make 30 ml of a 2% isotonic drug (sodium chloride equivalent 0.20) solution?
(A) 0.60 (C)   0.15
(B) 0.27 (D)   0.12

Q.146  Read the following statements about lyophilization:
[P] : Lyophilization cannot be done in final containers like multiple dose containers.
[Q]: Lyophilized product needs special methods for reconstitution.
[R] : Lyophilization causes protein denaturation in tissues.
[S] : Lyophilization is suitable for drying the thermolabile products.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A)   P is true and Q, R & S are false    (B)   Q is true and P, R & S are false
(C)   R is true and P, Q & S are false    (D)   S is true and P, Q & R are false

Q.147  In a pharmacokinetic model depicted in the following scheme, what is the half-life of the drug if the apparent volume of distribution of the drug is 25 L?
250 mg i.v.    ?
0.173 /hr
?
(A)    1.7 hr    (B)   2hr    (C)   4 hr    (D)   3 hr

Q.148 A sample of paracetamol tablets claims to contain 500 mg of paracetamol. But, on analysis by Govt. Analyst, it was found to contain 200 mg. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, this product would be categorized as what?
(A)   Misbranded drug    (B)   Adulterated drug
(C)   Spurious drug       (D)   Unethical drug

Q.149 Use of which of the following artificial sweeteners is permitted in various dosage forms of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani proprietary medicines?
(A)   Sucralose    (B)   Aspartame    (C)   Saccharin    (D)   All of them

Q.150 What will be the maintenance dose of a sustained release 12 hour formulation of drug X exhibiting one compartment kinetics with a half-life of 6 hours, plasma concentration (steady state) 6 ug/ml, volume of distribution 30 L, and an oral bioavailability of 80%?
(A)   249.48 mg   (B)   225.48 mg    (C)   311.85 mg    (D)   281.85 mg

ANSWERS AND KEY SOLUTIONS of GPAT 2012

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