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GPAT 2019 | Question paper with key solutions

 

Clinical courses

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76-125 questions are available below:

76. In case of open model intravenous infusion, Css  (steady state plasma concentration) is equal to :

77. In case of suppositories base, SFI stands for :
(a) Solidified Fatty acid Indices
(b) Solid Fluid Indices
(c) Solidified Fatty acid Incline
(d) Solid Fat Index

78. If mean volume — number diameter of a powdered sample is 2.41µm, density is 3 gm/cm3 , the number of particles/gm will be .
(a) 538 x 1010 (b) 3.68 x 1010 (c) 4.55 x 1010 (d) 4.70 x 1010

79. Which polymorphic form of a drug candidate has highest melting point :
(a) Unstable (b) Metastable (c) Hydrates (d) Stable

80. For bitter drugs in paediatric formulations, excellent flavouring agent will be.
(a) Raspberry syrup (b) Orange syrup (c) Lemon syrup (d) Black current syrup

81. The co-administration of erythromycin with cyclosporine :
(a) Increase bioavailability, due to inhibition of hepatic metabolism
(b) Increase bioavailability, due to inhibition of microflora in intestine
(c) Decrease bioavailability due to complex formation
(d) Decrease bioavailability, due to induction of hepatic metabolism

82. Essentially Hospital Formulary system provide mechanism to :
(a) Streamline prescription writing
(b) Improve quality and hygenicity of food
(c) Avoid brand and therapeutic duplication
(d) Improve surgical procedures

83. Volume of blood that flows per unit time per unit volume of the tissue is :
(a) Residence time (b) Elimination rate (c) Gastric emptying rate (d) Perfusion rate

84. Leaching by immersion Of crude material in a solvent is also known as :
(a) Maceration (b) Precipitation (c) Evaporation (d) Crystallization

85. The protein toxins that have been modified to reduce the toxicity without significantly altering the immunogenicity are known as :
(a) Sera (b) Antisera (c) Toxoids (d) Vaccines

86. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for achieving gastroretention?
(a) Osmosis (b) Floating (c) Mucoadhesion (d) Swelling

87. The phase contrast microscopy is valuable in studying living cells which are :
(a) Stained
(b) Unstained
(c) Treated with fluorescent dye
(d) Treated with fluorescent antibody

PHARMACOGNOSY

88. The size Of Lycopodium sp ores is :
(a) 45 µm (b) 15 µm (c) 35 µm (d) 25 µm

89. Regholarrhenines A-F have been isolated from :
(a) Veratrums (b) Areca (c) Aconite (d) Kurch

90. Pungency of Zingiber officinal e rhizome is due to the presence of :
(a) Citral (b) Gingerol (c) Commiphoric acid (d) Gingeral

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91. The principal cultivation areas of pyrethrum flowers are in -
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Malaysia (c) India (d) Kenya

92. In Cassia angustifolia short-term drought :
(a) Increases the concentration of sennosides A + B
(b) Decreases the concentration of sennosides A + B
(c) Causes loss of leaf biomass
(d) Causes death of the plant

93. The Glycoside Scilliroside in red sqrill acts as :
(a) Insecticide (b) Rodenticide (c) Acaricide (d) Molluscide

94. Shellac is a resinous substance pr4vtred from a secretion that encrusts the bodies of a scale insect :
(a) Viverra civet (b) Karria lacca (c) Acipenser huso (d) Alverites moschiferus

95. All members of this order are trees or shrubs; mostly evergreen with needle - like leaves ; monoecious
or dioecious - sporophylls usually in cones. Resin ducts occur in all parts :

(a) Cycadales (b) Ginkgoales (c) Taxales (d) Coniferae

96. In Gambir - fluorescin test the petroleum spirit layer shows a strong :
(a) Green fluorescence
(b) Blue fluorescence
(c) Yellow fluorescence
(d) Red fluorescence

97. Antiviral action of Neem in due to :
(a) Kaemferol (b) Nelanin (c) Nimbin (d) Azadirachitin

PHARMACOLOGY

98. Characteristic micrncapic features observed in Alzheimer’s disease is:
(a) Epidural haemoregic patches
(b) Depigmentation of substantia nigra
(c) Demyelination of neurons in spinal cord
(d) Presence of neutritic plaques containing Ab-amyloid

99. Cardiac output is:
(a) Volume of blood ejected by the auride per minute
(b) Volume of the blood ejected by the left ventricle per beat
(c) Volume of the blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute
(d) Volume of blood ejected by the auricles per beat

100. What are sutures?
(a) Cartilaginous joints
(b) Non fibrous joints
(c) Synovial joints
(d) Fibrous joints of the skull

101. Following are the facts regarding clinical applications of muscarinic receptor blocking drugs. Identify the false statement:
(a) Used in the treatment of parkinson’s disease is often an excercise in polypharmacy, since no single agent is fully effective.
(b) Marked reflex vagal discharge may stimulate sinoatrial oratrioventricular node to improve cardiac output.
(c) Mydriasis produced greatly facilitates opthalmoscopic examination of the retina and
measurement of refractive error in uncooperative patient.
(d) Scopolamine is one among the old remedies used to treat sea-sickness

102. Which of the following cells are called scavenger cells?
(a) Neutrophils (b) Natural killer cells (c) Marcrophages (d) Mast cells

103. Which is NOT true about calcitriol?
(a) It is active form of Vit D3
(b) It enhances reabsorption of calcium and phosphate from bone
(c) It prevents tubular reabsorption of calcium and phosphate
(d) Enhances absorption of calcium and phosphate from intestine

104. Production of an abnormal lgG immunoglohulin in Grave’s disease causes:
(a) Multinodular goitre
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Thyrotoxicosis
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis

105. Metabolic acidosis does NOT occur during :
(a) Starvation
(b) Chronic renal failure
(c) Wound healing
(d) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

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106. Glucocorticoids have following effects - EXCEPT:
(a) Stimulation of immune responses
(b) Resistance to stress
(c) Lipolysis
(d) Protein breakdown and glucose formation

107. Which one of the following is NOT’ the role of Nitric oxide?
(a) Reliving vascular smooth muscle
(b) Mediating microbicidal action of macrophages
(c) Serving as neurotransmitter in CNS
(d) Inducing platelet aggregation

108. Identify the drug which is not useful in the treatment of tuberculosis:
(a) Pyrazinamide (b) Gentamicin (c) Streptomycin (d) Ciprofloxacin

109. What is anaplasia?
(a) Morphological and functional alterations/changes, that are different from normal cells
(b) Morphological and functional resemblance to normal cells
(c) Increase in size of cell
(d) Lack of growth of cells

110. Match the following liver abnormalities with consequences:
(a) Steatosis (M) Raised hiliruhin level
(b) Cholestasis (N) Slight rise in serum transaminase level
(c) Hepatitis (O) Accumulation of fat droplets within liver cells
(d) Fibrosis (P) lilevated liver function test (LFT’s)
(a) (a) - (N), (b) – (P), (c)- (M), (d)- (O)
(b) (a) - (O), (b) – (M), (c)- (P), (d)- (N)
(c) (a) - (N), (b) – (O), (c)- (P), (d)- (M)
(d) (a) - (P), (b) – (O), (c)- (N), (d)- (M)

111. Numerous isomers of human liver P450 enzyme have been identified, it is not worthy that ______alone is responsible for the metabolism of over 55% of the prescription drugs metabolized by liver.
(a) CYP3A4 (b) CYPIA2 (c) CYP1A11 (d) CYP2B6

112. Which of the following directly inhibits Factor Xa?
(a) Dabigatran (b) Warfarin (c) Bivalirudin (d) Rivaroxahan

113. Which of the following anticonvulsants have both inhibition of excitatory glutamatergic synapse and facilitation of GABA mediated Cl channel opening action?
(a) Valproate (b) Ethosuximide (c) Topiramate (d) Phenytoin

114. Which of the following is NOT a cardioselective β blocker?
(a) Bisoprolol (b) Nebivolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Pindolol

115. The term ‘aneurysm’ refers to:
(a) Permanent blockage of blood vessels
(b) Permanent abnormal dilatation of blood vessel
(c) Abnormal connections in blood vessels
(d) Abnormal growth of neurones near blood vessels

116. The antiemetic activity of glycopyrronium is related to potent inhibition of ........... receptor both peripherally and centrally.
(a) 5HT3
(b) D2
(c) M1
(d) H1

117. Identify the false statement about benzodiazepines from the following:
(a) Benzodiazepines cause reduction of anxiety
(b) Benzodiazepines cause convulsions
(c) Benzodiazepines produce muscle relaxation and loss of motor co-ordination
(d) Benzodiazepines are useful in insomnia

118. Which of the following is 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?
(a) Gliclazide (b) Sildenafil (c) Finasteride (d) Polvthiazide

119. Several different chemicals released by microbes and inflamed tissues attract phagocytes, this phenomenon is called as .............
(a) Phagocytosis (b) Integrins (c) Chemotaxis (d) Emigration

120. Hematocrit 65% to 7O% indicates:
(a) Hemophilia (b) Polycythemia (c) Hypoxia (d) Anaemia

121. The adverse reaction associated with â-2 agonists administered by inhalation or nebulisation in the management of asthma does not include ..............
(a) Peripheral vasodilation
(b) Hypertension
(c) Tachvcardia
(d) Fine tremor

122. Select the ulcer protective drug from the following:
(a) Oxyphenonium (b) Metronidazole (c) Misoprostol (d) Sucralfate

123. Disturbances of oestrogen/progesterone balance could cause a relative deficiency of .......... leading to disturbances in production of dopamine and serotonin. This contributes for emotional disturbances and depression.
(a) Enzyme decarboxylase (b) Tvrosine (c) Pyridoxine phosphate (d) Co-factor A

124. Testing of chemicals by OECD guideline No. 420 refers to which of the following:
(a) Ate oral toxicity by acute toxic class method
(b) Acute oral toxicity by up and Down procedure
(c) Repeated dose 28-day toxicity study in rodents
(d) Acute oral toxicity by fixed dose procedure

125. Which of the following is true?
Excessive use of diuretics can lead to:
(a) Hypervolemic shock
(b) Neurogenic shock
(c) Hypovolemic shock
(d) Cardiogenic shock

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